Is JESUS The NAME of GOD?

In the Christian world today I run across those who adamantly declare the NAME of GOD is JESUS, has always been JESUS and will always be JESUS. This is known as the “JESUS NAME” movement. Yes, I love the name of Jesus, yet I believe these who insist on the NAME of GOD as JESUS ONLY are missing the mark of what the Bible declares to be the NAME of GOD.

I suppose we should start with the question, “What did God say His NAME was?” Many who read the Bible really don’t know because the NAME of GOD was translated as LORD throughout the Old Testament or what the Jews refer to as the Tanakh. We know they did not want to say His NAME, nor did they want anyone else to say His NAME so they refer to God’s NAME simply as Hashem, meaning “The NAME” or Adonai, meaning “LORD” or “Master”. Thus, we have “LORD” stamped over the NAME of God in the Scriptures.

Let’s go back to Exodus 3:14-15 where God first revealed His NAME to Moses. Why did God tell Moses His NAME? If we consider what God was about to do, which was to SAVE Israel from captivity in Egypt, DELIVER them out of bondage, His NAME is quite relevant to GOD our Savior, wouldn’t you say? Consider the night Israel fled Egypt for the last time. They placed the blood of lambs on their doorposts to be spared from the Angel of Death – thus, the foreshadow of the shed blood of the Lamb of God to come, namely JESUS.

  • God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, 'I AM has sent me to you.'" God, furthermore, said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘YHWH’, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My NAME forever, and this is My memorial-NAME to ALL generations.

Strong’s defines the word NAME as an appellation, as a mark or memorial of individuality; by implication honor, authority, character. Most everyone agrees that YHWH has many ‘names’ in the Old Testament, which describe His character and authority. I will list them here in summary:

YHWH Hoseenu (I AM your Maker)
YHWH Nissi (I AM your Banner)
YHWH Raah (I AM your Shepherd)
YHWH Rapha (I AM your Healer)
YHWH Shammah (I AM There)
YHWH Tsidkenu (I AM your Righteousness)
YHWH Mekoddishkem (I AM He Who Sanctifies You)
YHWH Jireh (I AM your Provider)
YHWH Shalom (I AM your Peace)
YHWH Sabaoth (I AM The LORD of Hosts)

YHWH has many Titles, as well (these are not NAMES):

Abba (Father)
El Shaddai (LORD God Almighty)
El Elyon (The Most High God)
El Gibbor (The Mighty God)
Adonai (LORD, Master)
El Olam (The Everlasting God)
Elohim (God)
Qanna (Jealous)

The Name of JESUS

There is ONE NAME missing in the list of YHWH’s Old Testament NAMES above and that is “I AM your Savior”, revealed in the New Testament. In Hebrew, the NAME IS YeHoWsHua, which would rightly be translated into English as Joshua, as Joshua of Nun had the exact same name as the One we call JESUS.

Some of us may not know this, but Joshua, son of Nun (tribe of Ephraim - Jer 31:9) was not always called Joshua. His name was Hoshea, which means 'salvation'. Moses renamed him Joshua in Numbers 13:16, for he is the prophet YHWH said would succeed Moses after his death - he would speak the words of YHWH to the people and lead them into the promised land (Deut 18:16-18). Talk about a foreshadow!

Now we can go back the angel’s message to Joseph in Mat 1:21 about the conception of the Son of God in Mary’s womb, and what he was to NAME Him:

  • “She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins."

And what have we to say about the OTHER NAME this child was to be called in Matthew 1:22-23?

  • "Now all this took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet: "BEHOLD, THE VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD AND SHALL BEAR A SON, AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL," which translated means, "GOD WITH US."

The above fulfills what was prophesied by Isaiah in 7:14:

  • "Therefore the Lord [Adonai] Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel.”

Likewise, Isaiah gave us Titles of this child in 9:6:

  • “For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us; And the government will rest on His shoulders; And His NAME will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.”

Wonderful (wonderful, marvelous, miraculous)
Counselor (advise, consult, counsel, guide)
Mighty God (El Gibbor)
Eternal Father (’ă·ḇî·‘aḏ - ’ă·ḇî means Father; 'aḏ means eternal or everlasting)
Prince (chief captain, general, governor, keeper, lord, taskmaster, principal)
of Peace (shalom - well, favor, friend, great, good health, perfect)

Is JESUS a Hebrew Name?

Would the Hebrew Yehoshua have answered to the English transliterated name “jē'zəs”? Well, He created all languages, so probably; however, the common languages in that part of the world at the time were Hebrew/Aramaic, Latin and Greek.

Let’s look at John 19:19-20 “Pilate also wrote an inscription and put it on the cross. It was written, "JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS." Therefore many of the Jews read this inscription, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew [Hebraisti], Latin and in Greek.”

In Hebrew: זה ישוע הנצרי מלך היהודים

In Latin: Iosue Nazarenus Rex Iudaeorum.

In Greek: Οὗτός ἐστιν Ἰησοῦς ὁ βασιλεῦς τῶν Ἰουδαίων

The name JESUS would have been shown as follows:

I have no problem with calling the name of our Savior, Jesus; however, JESUS is NOT a Hebrew name at all – we can’t even reverse-translate it back to Hebrew. You CAN reverse-translate Joshua back to Hebrew, which means “YHWH is Salvation”. This is evident in using the Hebrew name translation tool found here: My Hebrew Name

Type in the name JESUS and see the results. One of the similar names in Hebrew is Jesse. Isaiah 11:1 does prophesy of Jesus, “And there shall come forth a rod out of the stem of Jesse, and a Branch shall grow out of his roots:”

Jesse (Yishay) is pronounced yee-shah'-ee, who was the father of David. Even his name does not sound like jē'zəs. Jesse means “God exists” or “God’s gift”.

His NAME is Called The WORD of GOD

Just as Genesis 1:1-3 declares “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth” and concludes with, “Then God said…[The Word]”, John 1:1 declares “In the beginning was the Word“ and concludes with “And God was the Word.” Have we really fathomed that everything created was first SPOKEN into existence, including Adam, Eve and the coming birth of the Son of God?

  • Gen 1:26 “And God said, ‘Let Us make man in Our image…’” before He created Adam from the dust of the ground in Gen 2:7.
  • Luke 1:35 “The angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.” Mary answered the angel in vs. 38, “Behold, the bondslave of the Lord; may it be done to me according to your Word." And the angel departed from her.”

Thus, John 1:3 declares of the Word (KJV) “ALL things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made.”

In the Revelation of Jesus Christ 1:8 it is written, "I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the LORD God, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty."

John 1:1 God WAS the Word “in the beginning” and the Word was made flesh (John 1:14)

Rev 19:11-13 God IS the Word TO COME:

  • “And I saw heaven opened, and behold, a white horse, and He who sat on it is called Faithful and True, and in righteousness He judges and wages war. His eyes are a flame of fire, and on His head are many diadems; and He has a name written on Him which no one knows except Himself. He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called The Word of God.”

GOD our SAVIOR

Thus far, we’ve seen God give His NAME as YHWH to Moses. We’ve looked at all the characteristic NAMES of God, including JESUS, Immanuel and The Word. Can we rightfully declare the NAME of God has always been JESUS, is yet JESUS and always will be JESUS?

We know the Hebrew meaning of the name JESUS and without controversy, YHWH declared Himself to be the ONLY Savior: the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the ONE who SAVED Israel in Exodus.

  • Hosea 13:4 “Yet I have been YHWH your God Since the land of Egypt; And you were not to know any god except Me, For there is no savior besides Me.”
  • Isaiah 43:11 "I, even I, am YHWH, And there is no savior besides Me.”

YHWH The Savior, was BORN in the flesh to save us from our sin!!

  • Luke 2:11 “For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour [σωτὴρ], which is Christ the LORD [Kyrios, the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew NAME, YHWH].”

The Aramaic Bible in Basic English translates the verse this way:

  • “For today, The Savior has been born to you, who is THE LORD JEHOVAH The Messiah, in the city of David.”

While σωτὴρ is translated ‘a Savior’ only in Luke 2:11, it is consistently translated ‘The Savior’ in John 4:42, Eph 5:23 and 1 Tim 4:10.

Remember Mary's prayer in Luke 1:47 "And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior."

Is JESUS YHWH?

Let’s go back to Ex 3:14-15, where God called Himself “I AM who I AM” (Hebrew ’eh·yeh 'ă·šer ’eh·yeh) and declared His NAME as YHWH. In fact, the NAME YHWH is interpreted “I AM HE WHO EXISTS”:

  • John 8:56-59 JESUS said, “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad." [ref Gen 18:22] So the Jews said to Him, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?" Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM [‘eh-yeh/ego eimi]. Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple.”

This isn’t the only time the Jews tried to stone Jesus for blasphemy. Look at what happened in John 10:33 (because He just said, “I and My Father are ONE” in vs. 30):

  • “The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God."

Truly, Jesus declared in John 8:24, “Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I AM [‘eh-yeh/ego eimi], you will die in your sins."

JESUS is the NAME of YHWH our Savior, “And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved."

  • Isa 45:22-23 “Turn to Me and be saved, all the ends of the earth; For I am God, and there is no other. I have sworn by Myself, The Word has gone forth from My mouth in righteousness And will not turn back, That to Me every knee will bow, every tongue will swear allegiance.”
  • Confirmed in Rom 14:11 “For it is written, "AS I LIVE, SAYS YHWH, EVERY KNEE SHALL BOW TO ME, AND EVERY TONGUE SHALL GIVE PRAISE TO GOD."
  • Phil 2:10-11 “For this reason also, God highly exalted Him [JESUS], and bestowed on Him [JESUS] the name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ IS LORD [YHWH/Kyrios], to the glory of God the Father.”
  • Joel 2:32 "And it will come about that whoever calls on the name of YHWH will be saved [delivered]; For on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem There will be those who escape, As YHWH has said, Even among the survivors whom YHWH calls.” (Acts 2:21; Rom 10:13)

The NAME of GOD

The NAME of GOD is YHWH. The WORD is YHWH. The NAME of YHWH our SAVIOR is JESUS (Yehoshua) and JESUS Christ IS the WORD who WAS, IS and IS TO COME, The Almighty (Rev 1:7). What seals the deal? Did you know that the Hebrew letters YHWH also have associated pictographs?

Yod = Hand

Heh = Behold

Waw = Nail

Heh = Behold

BEHOLD THE HAND; BEHOLD THE NAIL.”

שמע ישראל יהוה אלהינו יהוה ׀ אחד
Sh'ma Yis'ra'eil YHWH Eloheinu YHWH echad.
Hear, Israel, The LORD is our God, The LORD is One.

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Comments 36 comments

sheilamyers 2 years ago

This hub is packed with interesting information. Although I was aware of the various names of God, I enjoyed being reminded of the meanings. I also agree with you that Jesus is just one of the many names and that he is God. This is a wonderful and educational hub I hope many Christians get a chance to read.


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

I'm glad you enjoyed reading this hub, sister sheilameyers, and found it wonderful and educational. Thank you! I also love being reminded of God's names, as they describe His character, which we can apply to so many aspects of our lives, as we trust in His Name. I thoroughly enjoyed writing about it!! Blessed be the NAME of our God and Savior!! And blessings to you!!


Tributeman 2 years ago from Wales UK

The name Jesus was significant because its interpretation was Saviour...He had many other names but I believe this name Jesus was unique to Him being both fully human and fully divine...the Father and the Holy Ghost are ALWAYS GOD.Christ the Word and all His other names were His being fully God BEFORE He came to earth.


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Amen, Tributeman! "In HIM [Jesus] dwells [present tense] ALL the fulness of The Deity [tēs Theotētos] bodily" (Col 2:9)

He is our Father: Rev 21:7 "He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be My son."

He is the Spirit: John 10:22 "And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Spirit:"

He was the Word made flesh: John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."

1 Tim 3:16 tells us clearly, "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."

To confirm this, we can look at Rev 2:8 and Isa 44:6:

"And unto the angel of the church in Smyrna write; These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive;"

"This is what YHWH says-- Israel's King and Redeemer, YHWH Sabaoth [The LORD of Hosts]: I am the first and I am the last; apart from Me there is no God."

Isa 9:6 "His name shall be called...Eternal Father [’ă·ḇî·‘aḏ]" HalleluYah to God our Savior, YeHoWsHua! Blessings to you!!


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teaches12345 2 years ago

Thank you for this study on the name of Jesus. His name, not matter what, is above all others.


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Yes, I've seen the "Jesus Only" group claim that the name "Jesus" is above the name YHWH (and thus, we are never to use the name YHWH). They are certainly most ignorant to what the Bible teaches. YHWH is the NAME of God and YHWH our Savior (Jesus) is yet His name, which is above all other names that ever were, are or ever will be.

In the passage of Phil 2, in vs. 11 it concludes with, "every tongue shall confess that Jesus Christ is LORD (YHWH) to the GLORY of God the Father."

Glory is the Greek word doxa, defined as "honor, renown; glory, an especially divine quality, the unspoken manifestation of God, splendor."

Glory to God!


Tributeman 2 years ago from Wales UK

For me this is absolutely correct...When Jesus announced to the Pharisees that He knew Abraham they asked how could that be you are not yet 50 years old by using the name I AM in His reply to them they knew exactly what He meant...Jesus was referring back to Mt Sinai and Moses when God answered Moses request what shall I say to the people about who you are ( Im paraphrasing now) tell them I AM sent you Jesus is the I AM


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Yes, amen, Tributeman! Actually, Jesus was addressing two appearances in the past: 1. to Abraham (Gen 18:22) and 2. to Moses in the burning bush (Ex 3:14-15). Yet, they couldn't fathom their God was standing right there in front of them, face-to-face. "In the beginning was the Word, And the Word was to [pros] elohim and Elohim was the Word." (John 1:1, 14; Ps 82:6; John 10:34-36).


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Bishop J L Hayes 2 years ago from Texas City, Texas

Add Your Comment…Enjoyed this article very much. Thank you for all your research.


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Praise the LORD, Bishop Hayes ~ so glad you enjoyed this hub. The research was fascinating and it was time I compiled it into this hub to present the eternal NAME of God and His Almighty character and salvation! Blessings to you and yours.


Norine Williams 23 months ago

Judah's Daughter: Did you consider the dispensation in which we now live: under the "New Covenant (Grace and Truth)?" Remember, in Matthew 28:18 Jesus said, "...All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth." Jesus is now gathering the Church. Therefore, God is in the "Glory" of Jesus in our dispensation! However, I Corinthians 15:24 says, "Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father, when he shall have put down "all rule and all authority and power." Verse 28 goes on to say, "And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all." Case and point, Jesus is the name of God in the dispensation in which we now live. However, after "reconciliation" all rule and all authority and power " will again be subject to God that God may be all in all (as it was in the beginning)! Do you agree?


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Judah's Daughter 23 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Hi sis Norine - Jesus is the name of the Son of Man, God our Savior and by that name, and no other, are we saved. There is a boatload of understanding needed regarding the subjection of the "Son" (divine, resurrected saints, the context of 1 Cor 15:24) to the Father, which I have written about in my hub "1 Corinthians 15:28 - Jesus Subject to the Father?" http://hubpages.com/religion-philosophy/1-Corinthi...

To give you a hint of the 'flip side' of 1 Cor 15:27-28 and Eph 1:17, 22, consider that God placed everything under the feet of man in the beginning (before the fall). If you read Gen 1:28, Dan 7:13-14 (interpreted by the angel in vss 22, 26-27), Ps 8:4-9 and Heb 2:5-9 this will shed more ‘Light’ on the subject.

In summary, EVERYTHING, including death is already subject to Christ. Christ (who is God) intends to put all things under the feet of man again; however, not all things are yet put under man’s authority (due to the existence of the sinful flesh and the Adversary). All things being subject to man would exclude Christ (God), who put all things under him. When the grave is overcome ( believers' resurrection), evil is disposed of, and all things are finally subject to the saints (we who overcome, who are the ‘son’ mentioned in Rev 21:7), we will be fully subject to Christ (God) so that He may be all in all. It will be as it was in the beginning, before the fall. God and man ruling over everything.

Regarding "All power is given to me in heaven and in earth", here is my response:

Luke 4:6 "And The Devil said to him, “I shall give you all this dominion and its glory, for it is delivered to me, and I give it to whomever I want.” Who delivered the dominion and its glory to Satan? God surely didn't! It was Adam and Eve who did!

This is why the RESURRECTED Jesus, as the last Adam, stated in Mat 28:18 "And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me [the last Adam] in heaven and in earth." He took back the kingdom from Satan FOR us to deliver it (for He is God) back TO us.

When God gives me the time, I will be writing on "The Flip Side" of the hub link above -- He continues to inspire more and more understanding (of which I cannot put it all here in a comment box).

Blessings, sister.


Norine Williams 23 months ago

JD: I get confused when you use the term “…man ruling over everything ?” Not “man” (which is an unholy term after the fall), but reconciled Children of God, in God (Holy Spirit as before the fall). We will be like Jesus! If we have fallen “asleep in Christ,” and are “a son” of God as Jesus is The Son of God, will we not also be “subject to God” in the reconciliation process – Spirits – subject to God as Jesus will be? Yes! So it will be as it was in the beginning, GOD being ALL IN ALL! You see, the Great “I AM” will be as He was in the beginning and so will we (before the fall) if “We have fallen asleep in Christ!” Revelation 21:7 says, “…I will be his God, and he shall be my “son.” Do you not think that a “son” is subject to his Father? Why say ye, “God and man ruling over everything?” Yes, “He that overcometh shall inherit ALL things,” but we will still be “subject to God” for He is “I AM!”

Luke 21:33; Mark 13:31 and Matthew 24:35 says, “Heaven and earth shall pass away.” Why say ye, “ He took back the kingdom from Satan FOR us to deliver it (for He is God) back TO us?” During the reconciliation process, EVERYTHING (including Jesus Christ) will be subject to GOD so He may be ALL IN ALL, as was in the beginning. Do you not agree? Rev 21:1 says, “And I saw a “new” heaven and a “new” earth; for the "first" heaven and the "first" earth were passed away…” Verse 9 says, “…Come here, I will show thee the bride, the Lamb’s wife.” (The Church!) Praise God! Verse 14 goes on to say, “And the wall of the city (“the holy Jerusalem” – v. 10) had twelve foundations, and in them the names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb.” Can you see that the “foundation” is built on the apostles with Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone in the dispensation in which we now live? Ephesians 2:20 says, “And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone.” That’s why in Matthew 28:20 Jesus told the apostles to “Teach… them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you;...” Jeremiah 31:33; Hebrews 8:10 and 10:16 all say, “…For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel AFTER THOSE DAYS, saith the Lord: I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts;…” And that is precisely what He did! When the “initial” Church was established in Acts, Jesus commanded the apostles in v. 4 of Chapter 1 to, “…wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard from me.” We heard from Him in John 14:26! After that the apostles “only” baptized in the Name of the Lord Jesus! My God, My God, My God! Why can’t religion see that they need to be re-baptized if they were baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit? So many souls! It saddens me!

Not trying to argue, but sharing understanding of the Scriptures as was revealed to me. I continue to “Press On!”

Much Love JD – “Press On!”

P.S. Please email me regarding the “Marriage” document. Thanks for everything JD! You continue to make me look at Scriptures from another perspective and for that I am grateful!


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Judah's Daughter 23 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Hi Norine, It is assumed that believers know what I mean when I type “man ruling over everything”, for in the beginning, before the fall, that was God’s intent. Restoration to that intent indicates only “reconciled Children of God, in God.” “Man” is not an unholy term, because Gen 1:27 tells us that God created “man” in His own image; in the image of God He created him, male and female created He them. Notice here, the difference between “him” and “them” – God knows the difference, so why don’t Trinitarians? God created Adam first – it was only after all the animals were created and named that Adam was lonely and God created Eve in Adam’s "glory" (Greek = doxa - which can mean "unspoken manifestation of"). 1 Cor 11:7 “For a man ought not to have his head covered, since he is the image and GLORY of God; but the woman is the GLORY of man.” The wife represents the Church and Jesus is the Head/Husband of the Church. We can even gain understanding in 1 Cor 11:3 (imagine the millennial reign where ‘man’ – whether saved or not – is still coexisting on the earth, for Satan gathers the nations – Gentiles – to surround the Holy City at the end of the millennial reign): “But I want you to understand that Christ (the Anointed saints) is the head of every man (believers/unbelievers), and the man (husband, as with Jesus) is the head of a woman (wife, as with the Church), and God (one God, the Creator) is the head of Christ (the Anointed saints). We MUST have in our Spiritual minds that Jesus, the Christ, as the Last Adam, represents restored Adam (the Anointed saints).

This is why I find error in your interpretation when you stated, “During the reconciliation process, EVERYTHING (including Jesus Christ) will be subject to GOD.” I thought you KNEW Jesus Christ IS the One, True God?

Speaking of Luke 21:33; Mark 13:31 and Matthew 24:35 which says, “Heaven and earth shall pass away” and comparing it to Rev 21:1 “And I saw a “new” heaven and a “new” earth; for the "first" heaven and the "first" earth were passed away…”, just because Jesus Christ is the cornerstone, does not mean He is a part of the building and not God Himself. Are you able to distinguish between Him being the Shepherd as well as the Lamb? Is not Israel (Spiritual Israel) the Bride, of which the New Jerusalem is made up of? Did the Husband of Israel not become part of the Bride (Israel), for He, as the Son of Man was the offspring of David? He is no longer the “Son of Man” – when He returns, His name won’t even be JESUS, for He is not coming back as the Lamb, but the roaring Lion, our Shepherd and Judge of the earth. We don’t even know what His ‘name’ will be, except that Rev 19:13 states “His name is called the Word of God”. John 1:1 tells us that “God was the Word” (in Greek). 1 Tim 3:16 confirms John 1:14 that “God was manifest in the flesh”, for “the Word was made flesh”.

Read carefully here, Norine: “Matthew 28:20 Jesus told the apostles to “Teach… them to observe all things whatsoever I (this is obviously Jesus) have commanded you;...” Jeremiah 31:33; Hebrews 8:10 and 10:16 all say, “…For this is the covenant that I (Who?) will make with the house of Israel AFTER THOSE DAYS, saith the LORD; I will put My laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts;…” Whose commandments were the Apostles to keep? Jesus’ commandments. Who established the “New” Covenant? JESUS. Since JESUS supposedly gave the command to “baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit” in Mat 28:19, why did His Apostles NEVER do this? Because Jesus never gave such a command. He said, “Go therefore, into all the world and make disciples of all nations, in My name”, vs. 20 “teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you.” Amen.

Regarding baptism in water – we know it was done only in the name of Jesus Christ. However, you’ve read my hub on baptism and what it IS. To be baptized BY Jesus Himself is not about literal H2O, for this water doesn’t cleanse from the inside out. The Living Water (the Spirit of God/of Christ – read Rom 8:9) is what we are to be baptized in. Likewise, He will baptize with FIRE (pur – trials/afflictions), that our faith will come forth as gold, purified in the FIRE (1 Pet 1:7; Rev 7:18).

Finally, let’s go back to Acts 1:4 and John 14:26: “…wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard from me.” “But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you”, let’s not “miss” what Jesus clearly said in vs. 18 of John 14: “I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.” (KJV) The Greek word translated as “comfortless” in KJ is orphanous, meaning “orphans” (fatherless) – “I will not leave you as orphans; I will come to you.” http://biblehub.com/text/john/14-18.htm In context, Jesus is stating that it is HIS Spirit that will come to us, His Spirit He not only breathed upon His disciples prior to bodily ascension in John 20:22, but baptized them with on the Day of Pentecost! Still baptizing His children to this day!

Praying you may receive, sister. Blessings to you!


Norine Williams 23 months ago

Hello JD: Hope this writing finds you still being blessed and "Pressing On" in the name of the Lord Jesus. You and I agree entirely but maybe I'm not expressing myself accurately! When you say, "This is why I find error in your interpretation when you stated, “During the reconciliation process, EVERYTHING (including Jesus Christ) will be subject to GOD.” I thought you KNEW Jesus Christ IS the One, True God?"

Yes, He is the One True God, including the "Role" Jesus Christ for God is "I AM" a Spirit Who operates in Several Roles simultaneously! JD, I didn't say this, but the Scripture did in I Corinthians 15:28, "And when all things shall be subdued unto him (God), then shall the Son (Jesus, who is God for He is a Spirit (God) and because His Role (Jesus) will be over) himself (Jesus' Role, Who is God operating as Jesus gathering the Church) be subject unto him (God) that (God) put all things under him (Jesus), that God may be all in all."

You see, it seems that no one understands that God is a Spirit Who is "I AM" and can operate anywhere, anytime, simultaneously if He desires! He operates as anyone or anything He wants to be for He is "I AM!"

Please, you know I'm not a Trinitarian! I believe that God is "I AM" and His name is JESUS in the dispensation in which we now live! I don't believe that there is a big old man sitting on a throne with a long white beard and his little son is sitting on his right hand side! When the Scriptures speaks of Jesus sitting on the right hand side of God, it means sitting on the side of "Righteousness" for both (Now when I say "both," I refer to "Roles" of the Spirit of God not two separate entities) are the Spirit of God - Righteous!" Not "carnal" hands as we have them in the flesh for God is a SPIRIT!

Now concerning "man" being "unholy" yes he is in the dispensation in which we now live and is an "unholy term!" However, during the "Reconciliation process" man (not the unholy carnal man, but the Spiritual Man who has fallen asleep in Christ) will be as God, a Spirit as stated in Philippians 3:21, "Who shall change our lowly body, that it may be fashioned like his glorious body, according to the working by which he is able even to subdue all things unto himself." Now if we are going to be "fashioned like his glorious body" what then shall we be? Like "God" ourselves - a Spirit! To me, God is like a Magnet drawing us back from whence we came, if we have fallen asleep in Christ! He is operating as a Spirit (as I've said before) in Several Roles who is called by the Name Jesus today or in the dispensation in which we now live!

Trinitarians "limit" God to the Father, Son and the Holy Spirit! I believe He is "I AM" and can be an Ant if He wants to be or anything "According to His Purpose!" (Not trying to be funny, just telling how I feel about the Great "I AM!")

If Trinitarians could wrap their brain around what the Great "I AM" can do, then maybe they wouldn't "limit" Him as they do! If they would only believe that He is "I AM" according to Matthew 3:16-17, when Jesus was being baptized by John and John saw "the Spirit of (Who) God descending upon Him like a "dove," Jesus (God) standing in the Jordan being baptized, and a voice (Who's Voice - God's) from heaven saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased," (Prime example of the Spirit of God operating simultaneously), they would not put "ANY" limit on God (Whose name is Jesus in the dispensation in which we now live!!! My, God, My God, My God - Can't they see that He's the Great "I AM?"

Now regarding baptism: I agree with you wholeheartedly! There is no other name under heaven whereby we must be saved! At the name of "JESUS" not at the name of Father, not at the NAME of Son, not at the NAME of Holy Spirit, but at the name of "JESUS" every knee shall bow! How can they believe that Father, Son or Holy Spirit is a name? They are a father, they are a son, they are a husband, yet those are "roles" not names! I would like to see them take their payroll check to the bank with the name(s) father, son and husband on it and see if they would be able to get it cashed then maybe I would not hear what I hear so many of they say, "It really doesn't matter, they're all the same!" They better realize what the Word says!

Furthermore, Galatians 4:4 says, "But, when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the "law." When Jesus spoke the words in Matthew 28:19, He spoke them under the "law!" Did he not come to fulfill the law? We don't live under the "law" but under Grace and Truth! Jesus also said (under the law) "If your right eye offend you pluck it out." I don't see any of them doing that! Why - It's a metaphor! He means pray and ask God to remove "whatever" from you! Just as He said in Matthew 28:19 "baptize in the NAME" that's PRECISELY what He means and that "NAME" is "JESUS!"

Yes Sister, I receive baptism in the Name of the Lord Jesus and I hope we are saying the same thing regarding reconciliation; that JESUS is GOD and we will be "fashioned like his glorious body" during reconciliation "and will be subject unto him" (as Jesus (His Role for He is God - a Spirit) will be according to I Corinthians 15:28) that God may be all in all!

With Much Love,

Keep Pressing My Sister

Norine


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Judah's Daughter 23 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Hi sis Norine! Thank God you know there is only ONE GOD.

I am rushing out the door again -- however, may I respond to this, my only contention:

You wrote: JD, I didn't say this, but the Scripture did in I Corinthians 15:28, "And when all things shall be subdued unto him (God), then shall the Son (Jesus, who is God for He is a Spirit (God) and because His Role (Jesus) will be over) himself (Jesus' Role, Who is God operating as Jesus gathering the Church) be subject unto him (God) that (God) put all things under him (Jesus), that God may be all in all."

Please keep in mind that the original languages did not have capitalization, so we will use the capital S in "Son" to represent the resurrected, glorified Saints - in this, we do NOT contradict the rest of Scripture (Gen 1:28, Dan 7:13-14 (interpreted by the angel in vss 22, 26-27), Ps 8:4-9 and Heb 2:5-9) - did you read these earlier?

I Corinthians 15:28, "And when all things shall be subdued unto him (Glorified Saints), then shall the Son (Glorified saints) be subject unto Him (God) that put all things under him (Glorified Saints), that God may be all in all."

In the beginning, before the fall, God was certainly omnipresent Spirit. If you read Gen 3:8, realize there was only ONE GOD who not only created Adam and Eve, but spoke with them. Who is the Word (voice) of God? GOD, the Word:

Gen 3:8 "And they heard the VOICE of the LORD God WALKING in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God amongst the trees of the garden.

Jesus will not be the Son of God, subject to God in the restoration. He IS the Almighty God and there is none other besides Him ~ as you know :-)

For my hub on this subject, go here -- and know, that when I have time, I will be writing "The Flip Side" of the coin, mentioned in the hub below. We need to see this from the flip-side, not from traditional, Trinitarian theology (though we are NOT Trinitarians):

http://hubpages.com/religion-philosophy/1-Corinthi...

He is our Teacher and there is no turning left or right in Truth - straight on, on the mark. God love ya! Blessings.


Norine Williams 23 months ago

JD: You said, "I Corinthians 15:28, "And when all things shall be subdued unto him (Glorified Saints - Yes, because we will be "like Jesus"), then shall the Son (Glorified saints who are Christ-like - Jesus) be subject unto Him (God) that put all things under him (Glorified Saints - Jesus ), that God may be all in all."

Case and point, after the reconciliation process, God will be "all in all!" Remember, the "Glorified Saints" will have their bodies changed according to Philippians 3:21, "Who shall change our lowly body, that it may be "fashioned like his glorious body," according to the working by which he is able even to subdue all things unto himself."

Again I say, God will eventually be "all in all!" Final point, God (Glorified Saints "fashioned like his glorious body") will be "all in all" again - Holy - fashioned as the Spirit of God!

You know, God just wants "Worship!" He is God! He came down in the flesh, suffered and died, as an example, is giving us the opportunity to prepare ourselves through "worship" of Him and Him alone, so that we may be able to enter into the kingdom - become His Bride!

That's why I feel it "imperative" that we rightly divide His Word because we're speaking of "eternal life!" Remember, He is "Alpha and Omega, the beginning (Spirit) and the end (Spirit), the first (Spirit) and the last (Spirit)!" We will be Spirit in the kingdom to "magnify and worship" Him for He is "I AM!" That is what we were created for - to Worship God! That's what He wants! I don't think that is asking too much since He came and died for us!

Much Love,

Keep Pressing sister!


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Judah's Daughter 23 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Yes and amen! Blessings, sis Norine!


Oscarlites profile image

Oscarlites 16 months ago from Alabama

Jesus is the Savior, I shall not be moved, In the Rock Jehovah, I shall not be moved, Just like a tree that's planted by the water, I shall not be moved.. amen!


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Judah's Daughter 16 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Worship ~ I worship Him with you, Oscarlites! HalleluYah to our God and Savior!


clay 5 months ago

I am new to the hub. I ran across the planksandnails hub pages, while researching the trinity. I've read all of his articles over and over and I thought they were spectacular. I've never heard anyone speak so knowledgeable about the Bible as he does. You too, have a way of elegantly laying out scriptures to decipher the Truth. I must admit, I just now started reading your hubs and have only read a few but I notice you and planks disagree on the nature of Jesus. I see you deny the trinity, just like him him but he does not call Jesus, God. I guess what I'm trying to say is, are you implying that God, made himself flesh and was Jesus? In other words Jesus is God? I'm confused... How can Jesus be God, when God cannot die? Nor has any man ever seen God? I've been studying the Bible all my life, seriously studying for the last 10 years...there have been many things that I have straightened out, that didn't fit, with what I was taught, by studying the Bible myself, asking for guidance from Jehovah. But, the concept of Jesus being God in the flesh, does not make any sense. If Satan tempted Jesus, by offering Jesus the world, how is that temptation since Jesus is God an already owns the world? Maybe I'm missing something... I dont know. Look forward to your response.


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Judah's Daughter 3 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Hi Clay, Yes. God made Himself flesh so He could shed His own blood for our sins (Acts 20:28). A Spirit cannot shed blood. An immortal being cannot shed blood, and "without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sin" (Heb 9:22). Under the Old Covenant, the blood of goats and bulls was shed, but was not able to forgive sins (Heb 10:4).

Has anyone seen God? Read my hub "The Manifestations of God - Old Testament" and "The Manifestations of God - New Testament". Surely, those who saw God thought they would die, ,but did not die. Even Jesus said, "If you have seen Me, you have seen the Father." (John 14:9).

http://hubpages.com/religion-philosophy/The-FORM-o...

Truly, there are those who don't believe in a Trinity, and yes, both Planks and I agree on that. However, like Planks, they deny that Jesus is God. We have only One God. We have only One Savior. God is our Savior and Jesus (Yehowshua) is God our Savior.

Blessings to you as you continue to read and receive of the Truth.


Norine Williams 3 months ago

Clay, I know you addressed Judah, but somehow your questions came to my email and I couldn't resist! Let me add to Judah's comment:

You asked, "...are you implying that God, made himself flesh and was Jesus?" to which I will give Scripture:

I Timothy 3:16 "...GOD was "manifested in the flesh..." John 1:1-14 Speaks of JESUS {paraphrasing} "In the beginning was the WORD and the WORD was with GOD and the WORD was GOD. All things were made by HIM..." He was IN THE WORLD, and the world was made by HIM, and the world knew HIM not. And the WORD was made FLESH, and dwelt among us..." Therefore, Scripture says JESUS is GOD (and there are MORE)!

In other words Jesus is God?

Yes! Think of God as Smoke (THE SPIRIT; John 4:23-24 "God is a Spirit"), Who "fills the heaven and earth" (Jeremiah 23:24) and therefore Omnipresent (Jeremiah 23:24), Omniscient (Psalm 139), and Omnipotent (Jeremiah 32:27)! We're talking THE ALMIGHTY - "I AM" not a father and son as we understand in the flesh, but Father and Son as he "called" HIMSELF in Scripture yet ONE SPIRIT (I Corinthians 12; Ephesians 4:4-6; Isaiah 43:11)!

I'm confused... How can Jesus be God, when God cannot die?

GOD is a SPIRIT (John 4:23:24) but being "Omnipotent," "manifested HIMSELF in the flesh" (I Timothy 3:16) and "shed his blood for the remission of our sins" (Matthew 26:28)! GOD is "The Redeemer!" Isaiah 44:6 says "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his "REDEEMER" the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no GOD." Do you see that ONE SPIRIT (I Corinthians 12:12; Ephesians 4:4-6) not two deities? JESUS is the Redeemer! II Peter 1:1 says "To those who have obtained like precious faith with us by the righteousness of our GOD "and" (also) Savior JESUS CHRIST."

"Nor has any man ever seen God?"

TRUE! "GOD is a SPIRIT" (John 4:23-24) but also "Omnipotent" as proven by the "manifestation of HIMSELF in the flesh" (I Timothy 3:16)!

John 8:24 "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that "I AM" [He], ye shall die in your sins."

John 8:58 "The JESUS said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, "I AM!"

Isaiah 44:24 {Paraphrasing} "GOD created the world by HIMSELF."

John 1:3; Colossians 1:16 {Paraphrasing} "JESUS made all things."

I Corinthians 1:13 "Is Christ divided...?" Colossians 2:9 "For in HIM dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily." Philippians 2:10-11 "That at the NAME of JESUS every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth, And that every tongue should confess that JESUS CHRIST is LORD, to the GLORY of GOD the FATHER."

GOD operates in GLORIES (Omnipotent) and "fills the heaven and earth" (Jeremiah 23:24) as "SMOKE" for HE is THE SPIRIT (John 4: 23:24)!

GOD is "WHAT" He is, but JESUS is "WHO" He is!


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Oscarlites 3 months ago from Alabama

The Almighty God-"incarnate" ( in the flesh). Isaiah 9:6 A true miracle that GOd, who is way bigger and better than any person could be.. God incidentally isn't a person, as we perceive a person to be... hes not a person on a Godhead. He is GOd.. and then,,,,, he became a person, a man, Jesus of the flesh, born of a virgin , mary, and dwelt among us.. on a mission, the purpose of saving us from Adams sin that we inherited. Jesus removes the curse, when we accept eternal life, and die out to the life of death,/sin, = engage in a spiritual dying to the flesh now, in this life, and escape the eternal death of eternity without Him, Baptism symbolizes that death to sin.. it is an act of obedience, not of works., but of honoring our death to sin, by partaking of the divine clearing of our concience and of the similar death burial and resurrection of Jesus. Romans 6:3.. know ye not that when you are buried with him in baptism, you shall soon rise and walk in newness of life. his life.. Christ Life in you.. dying out to sin but being reborn a spiritual man, enabled by the holy ghost new birth baptism of spirit. Jesus said " if my spirit doesnt dwell in you, you are not of him., but if it does, you are alive with the living water. everything about satan and sin represents death.. EVERYTHING about Jesus and salvation represents life. the Word of GOd is alive.. it is our guide, our pathway to eternal life and to escape eternal darkness..


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Judah's Daughter 3 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Thank you, Noreen! And, I would like to expound on translating accurately a few of the Scriptures posted for better interpretation/understanding:

John 1:1 is literally translated "and the Word was to/toward Elohim and God was the Word." Now, when we understand that even Israel was called Elohim (ref Ps 82:6 and John 10:34) and we are told in John 1:14 that "the Word [who IS God] became flesh and dwelt among us" [Israel, for Jesus said in Mat 15:24 "for I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel"], we can better understand that "the Word was WITH God" translation is misunderstood by our finite minds to see TWO "persons".

When Jesus called Himself the Son of Elohim in John 10:36, in context, He quoted Ps 82:6 "Ye are Elohim" and then said He was the "Son of Elohim [Israel]." However, like the first Adam who is called "the son of God" in Luke 3:38, God in the man Jesus "became" the "last Adam" aka "the Son of God", as we are called "sons of God" once we are born again of the Spirit, who IS God.

As far as omnipresence goes, we can go back to Gen 18:22 where three men appeared before Abraham. Gen 19:1 calls two of the men angels and it states "Abraham remained standing before YHWH [the LORD]". God did not leave all of heaven, confined in a body at that time, any more than He left all of heaven when He took on the flesh of the Son of Man. When He stood before Abraham, He was immortal and could not shed blood. He chose to be born of a woman, to take on a body of flesh that could shed His OWN blood for our sins (Acts 20:28).

Readers also misinterpret Isa 44:6 which says "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his "REDEEMER" the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no GOD." Who's Redeemer? God has a separate Redeemer or is this stating the LORD is both the King of Israel and Israel's Redeemer? It truly is the latter. One God. One Redeemer, Amen.

We can also address the word "and", which means "even, also, namely", so we must not always read "and" as a preface to a second or third person. "You are a woman and Noreen", meaning "You are a woman, even Noreen". "You are a woman, also Noreen". "You are a woman, namely Noreen".

Praise God you shared John 8:24 "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that "I AM" [He], ye shall die in your sins." The word [He] was inserted, for Jesus said, "for if ye believe not that I AM, ye shall die in your sins." For we know, God said, "There is NO Savior besides Me." !!!!

In 1 Cor 1"13, it is translated "Godhead" (deceptive translation to support the FALSE Trinity doctrine). The Greek word is singular and is translated "Deity". "In Him dwells [present tense] the fullness of the Deity [singular] bodily." Amen.

In Philippians 2:10 we read "to the glory of God the Father" (as if Jesus Christ, who is LORD [YHWH] is called so to the glory of another, namely God the Father). However, look at the Greek here! The definition of "glory" is "honor, renown; glory, an especially divine quality, the unspoken manifestation of God, splendor." The unspoken MANIFESTATION of GOD the Father. Amen.


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Judah's Daughter 3 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

P.S. I'd like to say one more thing about understanding what Jesus said in Mat 15:24 "for I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel." WE who are saved by faith in Him, are grafted into the Tree [the Tree represents the Root and Offspring of David, who is of Jacob, renamed Israel] in Romans 11. Thus, "All Israel will be saved." This is not speaking of natural branches, for some will be cut off and some can be grated in again (by faith), just as Gentiles can be grafted in by faith and cut off, too, should they reject so great a Salvation. Praise the LORD, God our Savior!


Norine Williams 3 months ago

Thanks Judah! I appreciate your deep insight of HIS Word! Only the Holy Spirit could have revealed this unto you! I will keep your responses and study for future references. Thank the LORD for your revelations!

As for me, I'm unlearned in Hebrew and Greek, BUT GOD, has revealed these things unto me. It reminds me of Paul in II Corinthians 11:6 "But though I be rude in speech, yet not in knowledge..." and Galatians 1:12 "For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ."

According to HIS Word, I agree, wholeheartedly, that JESUS is GOD!

There are other revelations HE'S given me during your move. For instance, Moses was the Messenger of the LAW under the Old Covenant as Paul is the Messenger of GRACE under the New Covenant (May 19, 2016). The both experienced "The Light" and brought Messages to the people. Moses through "physical" means and Paul through "Spiritual" means. Thank the LORD! Amen.

There is to be "No Communion" in a "literal" sense for under the New Covenant EVERYTHING is ALL SPIRITUAL. Hebrews 7, 8, and 9 tells us "CHRIST HAS DONE IT ALL!" When we "...worship HIM in Spirit and in Truth" (John 4:23-24), we "commune" with HIM either by "studying" or by any other means! WOW! RELIGION certainly will NEVER see this one. Tradition has overlooked the Book of Hebrews thanks to the Catholic Faith! I thank GOD for this revelation!

Also, the GRACE of GOD now allow us to be saved by "Faith" (Ephesians 2:8-9)! We don't have to "work" as under the Old Covenant to see manifestation of changes in our lives. The Holy Spirit now "works" and "leads and guides us into ALL truth" (John 14:26)! WOW! How's the world going to accept this One? GOD is AWESOME!

What is your take on these "Revelations?"

To GOD Be the Glory!


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Judah's Daughter 3 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

It's all TRUTH that you wrote here, Noreen! Let's look at the mount of transfiguration (this is for confirmation of what the LORD revealed to you about Moses, though Paul was not in the picture at that time). The Bible is made up of the first five books (the Law or Torah), then the Prophets (with the Torah, make up the Old Testament or Tanakh). Thus, who was there on the mount of transfiguration in Matthew 17? Moses (the Law), Elijah (the Prophets) and Jesus (the fulfillment of both)!

Regarding literal communion, Jesus made it spiritual at the last supper (maybe it is called The LAST Supper for a reason?). He told them He is the bread of life and He told them to eat of His flesh and drink of His blood. So, truly, literal bread is just that. Literal grape juice or wine is just that. It is SYMBOLIC of the spiritual Truth Jesus spoke. By doing these literal things, it does not make it spiritual. Same thing goes for water baptism. We must be baptized by the Spirit in the Spirit and yes, then the Spirit does all things through us and all things work together for good. We truly have died to self at that moment and given all control to the LORD, who is the Spirit. 2 Cor 3:17 "Now the Lord is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty." AMEN!


Norine Williams 3 months ago

What was revealed is Hebrews 13:8 GOD operates "...the same yesterday, today and forever." As Moses was Messenger (Vessel) for the LAW (Old Covenant), Paul was Messenger (Vessel) for GRACE (New Covenant)!

Oh, Paul was in the picture (in GOD'S sight) but not mentioned in Scripture as yet!

Look at JESUS!

Re: Communion. We're to do NOTHING "SYMBOLIC" since Christ has DONE IT ALL or we defy Hebrews Chapters 7, 8 and 9!

Baptism: We must be baptized by the Spirit and by WATER. I Peter 3:20-21 says "...eight souls were saved by WATER. (v21) The like figure, whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (literally) (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ."

Amen!


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Judah's Daughter 3 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Eph 4:5 "There is One LORD (1), One Faith (1) and One Baptism (1)." So you know there is One LORD (not two, not three). Likewise, there is only One Baptism. When it is written in John 3:5 we must be "born" (this means begotten) of water, are we not born of the water of our mother's womb? When it is written we must also be "born" of the Spirit, are we not born (again) of the Spirit (the Living Water) when we believe the gospel and receive salvation, asking the Spirit of the LORD to fill us and cleanse us from the inside out? Nicodemus knew the meaning of "born" when Jesus said "Ye must be born again" by asking Him how we are supposed to go back into our mother's womb! There are two births: the physical and the Spiritual. John baptized with water (and yes, the Jews mikveh'd [baptized] themselves over and over again then and even today). Jesus, who is God (the Spirit) baptizes us with fire (trials, purification) and His Spirit. I invite you to read another of my hubs on this very subject, sister.

http://hubpages.com/religion-philosophy/BAPTISM-no...


Norine Williams 3 months ago

Nicodemus "didn't" know what JESUS was talking about when he asked "How can a person go back into our mother's womb" (John 3:5)! He was speaking in the flesh (“carnally”)! JESUS SAID in verse 3, “Verily, Verily I say unto thee, Except a man be born again (“Spiritually”), he cannot see the “kingdom of God.” What is the “kingdom of God?” I Corinthians 4:20 says “For the “kingdom of GOD” is not in word, but POWER!” What is POWER? Acts 1:8 says “But ye shall receive POWER after the Holy Ghost is come upon you…” Therefore, no one can enter the “kingdom of GOD” unless they have been “anointed” with the Holy Spirit! How can one? How can one understand or “commune” with GOD unless they have received the gift of the Holy Spirit which enables them to understand HIS WORD? How can JESUS talk to us without the Holy Spirit? The Holy Spirit is the key to entering the Kingdom of GOD! The Holy Spirit connects us to JESUS for discernment, for revelation to “lead and guide us into ALL truth” (John 14:26)!

You defy too MANY Scriptures with the interpretation of only a “Spiritual” baptism! How do you explain Acts 8:15-17 “Who, when they were come down, prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Ghost (v16) (For AS YET he was fallen upon none of them: ONLY they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)” (v17) THEN laid they their hands on them and [THEN] they received the Holy Ghost.” How were they, “ONLY” baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus, yet had not received the Holy Ghost, IF there’s ONLY a “Spiritual” baptism? Look at Verse 16 Again! He had not fallen upon any of them ONLY they had been [water] baptized because Verse 17 says “THEN they laid hands on them & they received the Holy Ghost!” Explain?

In Acts 10:44-48; (v44) “The Holy Ghost fell on all them that heard the word.” In verse 47 Peter asked, “Can any man forbid “WATER,” (now this is AFTER Holy Ghost fell on them) that these should not be baptized, which HAVE RECEIVED the Holy Ghost as well as we?” (v48) And he commanded them to be [water] baptized in the name of the Lord…” Explain?

In Acts 19:3-5, Why would Peter ask the disciples “Unto what then were be baptized? And they said unto John’s baptism.” Now we know John baptized with water, right? Then Paul told them they had to be re-baptized (with water) because the previous baptism was for those who believed on Him (JESUS) that would come after him [John]! “When they heard this, they were [water] baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.” (v6) [THEN] Paul laid his hand upon them and the Holy Ghost came on them.” Explain?

I Peter 3:21 says “[Water] Baptism doth ALSO now saves us not the putting away (cleansing with water) of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”

When we worship God, we “MUST worship in Spirit and in Truth” (John 4:23-24)! We must know when to separate the “carnal” from the “Spiritual!” For example, JESUS SAID in John 8:15 “I judge no one.” However, notice what He said PRIOR to saying “I judge no one!” “You judge by “HUMAN” standards;” therefore He was talking “the flesh” or “human;” otherwise, Scripture would have LIED in II Corinthians 5:10, Acts 17:31; Matthew 19:28 + more! Not judging would make other Scriptures a LIE as well (I Peter 4:17)!

Case and point, we MUST have the Spirit of discernment to separate when Scripture is talking of “carnal” things vs “Spiritual” things!

I have given three (3) “witness Scriptures” confirming there should be a “water baptism” (“carnal”) in addition to a “Spiritual” baptism. Ephesians 4:5 “One Lord, one faith, one baptism,” means “Spiritually” there is “one baptism” (and the MAIN One since other is “carnal”); otherwise, Acts 8:15-17, Acts 10:44-48, Acts 19:3-5, and I Peter 3:21 “ALL” LIED!

The reason I mentioned “witness Scriptures,” Matthew 18:16, Deuteronomy 19:15 and II Corinthians 13:1 says “Where there are two or three “witnesses,” the WORD IS ESTABLISHED!” Please give “witness Scriptures which state there is only a “Spiritual” baptism?

{Paraphrased MOST Scriptures!}

Iron sharpens iron!

Blessings


Norine Williams 3 months ago

Nicodemus "didn't" know what JESUS was talking about when he asked "How can a person go back into our mother's womb" (John 3:5)! He was speaking in the flesh (“carnally”)! JESUS SAID in verse 3, “Verily, Verily I say unto thee, Except a man be born again (“Spiritually”), he cannot see the “kingdom of God.” What is the “kingdom of God?” I Corinthians 4:20 says “For the “kingdom of GOD” is not in word, but POWER!” What is POWER? Acts 1:8 says “But ye shall receive POWER after the Holy Ghost is come upon you…” Therefore, no one can enter the “kingdom of GOD” unless they have been “anointed” with the Holy Spirit! How can one? How can one understand or “commune” with GOD unless they have received the gift of the Holy Spirit which enables them to understand HIS WORD? How can JESUS talk to us without the Holy Spirit? The Holy Spirit is the key to entering the Kingdom of GOD! The Holy Spirit connects us to JESUS for discernment, for revelation to “lead and guide us into ALL truth” (John 14:26)!

You defy too MANY Scriptures with the interpretation of only a “Spiritual” baptism! How do you explain Acts 8:15-17 “Who, when they were come down, prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Ghost (v16) (For AS YET he was fallen upon none of them: ONLY they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)” (v17) THEN laid they their hands on them and [THEN] they received the Holy Ghost.” How were they, “ONLY” baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus, yet had not received the Holy Ghost, IF there’s ONLY a “Spiritual” baptism? Look at Verse 16 Again! He had not fallen upon any of them ONLY they had been [water] baptized because Verse 17 says “THEN they laid hands on them & they received the Holy Ghost!” Explain?

In Acts 10:44-48; (v44) “The Holy Ghost fell on all them that heard the word.” In verse 47 Peter asked, “Can any man forbid “WATER,” (now this is AFTER Holy Ghost fell on them) that these should not be baptized, which HAVE RECEIVED the Holy Ghost as well as we?” (v48) And he commanded them to be [water] baptized in the name of the Lord…” Explain?

In Acts 19:3-5, Why would Peter ask the disciples “Unto what then were be baptized? And they said unto John’s baptism.” Now we know John baptized with water, right? Then Paul told them they had to be re-baptized (with water) because the previous baptism was for those who believed on Him (JESUS) that would come after him [John]! “When they heard this, they were [water] baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.” (v6) [THEN] Paul laid his hand upon them and the Holy Ghost came on them.” Explain?

I Peter 3:21 says “[Water] Baptism doth ALSO now saves us not the putting away (cleansing with water) of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”

When we worship God, we “MUST worship in Spirit and in Truth” (John 4:23-24)! We must know when to separate the “carnal” from the “Spiritual!” For example, JESUS SAID in John 8:15 “I judge no one.” However, notice what He said PRIOR to saying “I judge no one!” “You judge by “HUMAN” standards;” therefore He was talking “the flesh” or “human;” otherwise, Scripture would have LIED in II Corinthians 5:10, Acts 17:31; Matthew 19:28 + more! Not judging would make other Scriptures a LIE as well (I Peter 4:17)!

Case and point, we MUST have the Spirit of discernment to separate when Scripture is talking of “carnal” things vs “Spiritual” things!

I have given three (3) “witness Scriptures” confirming there should be a “water baptism” (“carnal”) in addition to a “Spiritual” baptism.

Ephesians 4:5 “One Lord, one faith, one baptism,” means “Spiritually” there is “one baptism” (and the MAIN One since other is “carnal”); otherwise, Acts 8:15-17, Acts 10:44-48, Acts 19:3-5, and I Peter 3:21 “ALL” LIED!

The reason I mentioned “witness Scriptures,” Matthew 18:16, Deuteronomy 19:15 and II Corinthians 13:1 says “Where there are two or three “witnesses,” the WORD IS ESTABLISHED!” Please give “witness Scriptures which state there is only a “Spiritual” baptism?

Using your interpretation that the Holy Spirit is the ONLY baptism, Paul certainly contradicted himself in I Corinthians 1:14 when he said “I baptized no one” for there are too many Scriptures that say Paul “laid hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit!”

{Paraphrased MOST Scriptures!}

Iron sharpens iron!

Blessings


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 3 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

Norine - I will post here, my response to you on the hub regarding baptism, for the benefit of those who are reading the comments here:

In addition to your questions above, you asked in that hub, "Judah, using your interpretation that the Holy Spirit is the ONLY baptism, Paul certainly contradicted himself in I Corinthians 1:14 when he said “I baptized no one” for there are too many Scriptures that say Paul “laid hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit!”

Here is my answer:

We have to look at the cross-reference of 1 Cor 1:13 which is Mat 3:6 "Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him [John] in the Jordan River", in that Paul was saying he thanked God he hadn't water-baptized anyone. Indeed Paul baptized in the Holy Spirit by the laying on of hands (ref. Acts 8:18; Acts 19:1-6).

In context of 1 Cor 1, Paul is stating that to be water-baptized by this person or that person is making a statement, "I follow that person that water-baptized me, for I was baptized in that person's name." It is interesting to note that Simon-Peter (Cephas or Kepha) is mentioned in 1 Cor 1:14 and it is he who preached Acts 2:38. Even "Christ" is mentioned in the list of those who water-baptized, as to whom they "follow" (vs. 12 - this always seemed strange to me). Truly, we don't follow any man, whether it's Paul, Apollos, Peter...and "Christ" means anointed - so any anointed believer that water-baptizes is how I must interpret this. "Is Christ divided" may mean "are the anointed divided"?.

If we were to interpret "Christ" as referring to Jesus as the Son of Man, we must reflect here, that Jesus Himself did not water-baptize anyone according to John 4:2, and John prophesied that Jesus would baptize, but with fire and the Holy Spirit (Mat 3:11, even Luke 3:16). This may explain Acts 8:16 "because the Holy Spirit had not yet come on any of them; they had simply been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus." In fact, read the NEXT verse! "Then Peter and John PLACED THEIR HANDS ON THEM, and they received the Holy Spirit."

I went back to Acts 2, the Day of Pentecost, when Peter and 119 others were baptized by Jesus in that upper room and re-read his message - that the prophesy of Joel had been fulfilled that day. No where in that chapter is water mentioned; rather it states, "40 With many other words he warned them; and he pleaded with them, “Save yourselves from this corrupt generation.” 41 Those who accepted his message were baptized, and about three thousand were added to their number that day." Do you think they water-baptized 3,000 people? Or, did the Holy Spirit baptize all, as He did those in the upper room and as shown in Acts 10:44?

Through the laying on of hands by believers filled with His Spirit (already baptized by Jesus in Spirit), Jesus transfers His Living Water, His Spirit, to the one being baptized in His Spirit. It is scripturally evident that the laying on of hands is not required to be baptized in the Holy Spirit (i.e. Acts 10:44-45 "While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. All the circumcised believers who came with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also [were these the Jews who were baptized in Acts 2?] For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God."

Truly, those baptized in the Spirit in Acts 10 were then water-baptized. This is where we get the term "believer's baptism". Even the eunuch baptized by Philip had to first believe before being water-baptized. Water-baptism is an ordinance for believers, but is not the baptism that washes us clean, forgives our sin or saves us.


Norine Williams 3 months ago

Paul said in I Corinthians 11:1 "Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ." This I will do, if God permits!

He also stated in Acts 22:16 when speaking to the people describing what happened to him on the road to Damascus: Ananias said unto him, "And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord." Therefore, if Paul was baptized with "water baptism," after being baptized with the Holy Spirit (Light shone upon him), why shouldn't we?

Peter said in I Peter 3:20-21 "Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a-preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by "water." THE LIKE FIGURE whereunto even "baptism" (water) doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but "the answer of a good conscience toward God,") by the resurrection of Jesus Christ."

Therefore, "water baptism" does not save us, but is "the answer of a good conscience toward God." Chapter 4 tells us to "...arm yourselves likewise with the same mind..." When Christ was "in the flesh" He was "water baptized!" Paul followed Him and I will follow Paul. However, as you and Scripture has said "...[water baptism] "...does not save us" but is "the answer of a good conscience toward God" or "an ordinance for believers" spoken of under the New Covenant.

I Peter 4:19 says "Wherefore let them that suffer according to the will of God commit the keeping of their souls to him in well-doing, as unto a faithful Creator."

We must become "with one accord" so that we can do as Hebrews 6:1-3 says "Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from "dead works," (which does not include eliminating "an ordinance" required of showing "a good conscience toward God"), and of faith toward God, Of the doctrine of "baptisms" (more than one), and of laying on of hands, and of the resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment. And this will we do, if God permit."


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 3 months ago from Roseville, CA Author

In the detailed account found in Acts 9:17-18 (re-told in Acts 22) we read "Then Ananias went to the house and entered it. Placing his hands on Saul, he said, “Brother Saul, the Lord—Jesus, who appeared to you on the road as you were coming here—has sent me so that you may see again and be filled with the Holy Spirit.” 18 Immediately, something like scales fell from Saul’s eyes, and he could see again. He got up and was baptized, 19 and after taking some food, he regained his strength."

We can see hear that Paul was not filled with the Holy Spirit at the time of his encounter with Jesus on the road to Damascus, for Ananias said he was to receive the Holy Spirit. We see Ananias laying hands on Saul, at which time Saul received his sight and, according to the multitude of Scriptures that indicate the Holy Spirit is given by the laying on of hands, Paul received the baptism of the Holy Spirit. This could be the baptism mentioned in verse 18, or verse 18 may indicate believer's baptism in water. Paul was a Jew. He, no doubt, mikveh'd (water-baptized) himself several times a week, as was the practice of the Jews. This also explains WHY Jesus was baptized by John. John was a Jew, too! Baptism was part of the Law/custom of the Jews and still is to this day.

To be baptized in water in the name of Jesus is to officiate the decision to leave the old man/ways behind, or any other water-baptism into another faith (i.e. Judaism).

Noah was not touched by water, so whenever someone uses the flood as an example of the necessity for water-baptism, it makes no sense. The symbolism of washing in H2O is that the water washes away the sin, as God washed away the sinners/sin/evil from the earth at the time of the flood. Those people were buried in water unto death and were certainly not saved by it. Jews mikveh in living water (i.e. the Jordan). The Holy Spirit is the Living Water that cleanses from the inside out. What was physical became spiritual, even God's Law (literal adultery vs. lust, literal murder vs. hate, etc.).

We agree that water-baptism does not save. Spirit-baptism is being "born again" or being "born of the Spirit", which is mandated for salvation when Jesus said, "Ye must be born again", comparing "that which is born of the flesh is flesh" and "that which is born of the Spirit is Spirit". There is only one baptism and we know what it is. Water-baptism is an ordinance not required for salvation, but we do it because we are saved and are making a public statement of our confession of the Lord's death and resurrection and commitment to die to the old man and rise in Christ Jesus, the new man. Yes, a good conscience toward God.

Let's continue this discussion on the baptism hub, as it really is unrelated to "Is Jesus the Name of God?" Love to you, Norine.


Norine Williams 3 months ago

I agree with everything you've said!

Yes, let's continue discussion where appropriate!

Love you too, Judah!

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