What GOD Has JOINED Together – Divorcing BAAL

Call Me Rebellious or Merciful?

My heart is heavy, brothers and sisters. Yes, I recently came into the biblical teaching of God’s Law on Marriage and Divorce. The issue that rips my heart is the question posed, “What if I married in ignorance, a man or woman who treated me horribly. S/he cheated on me all the time, drained the finances with their sinful living (could be drug addiction, hiring prostitutes, gambling, drinking parties, extravagant spending), lied to me perpetually or abused me physically and verbally, etc.” Maybe the spouse abused their children (and/or beloved pets!). And happening more and more, what if your spouse comes "out of the closet"?! Anyone heard of Narcissism? Truly, a Narcissist is disguised as "an angel of Light", but truly the devil to the core. Many unsuspecting men and women end up marrying such a deceiver, only to see the mask fall off once the nuptials are "set in stone".

I hear of husbands who have never been married before, rescuing that woman from such a treacherous marriage and subsequent divorce (or vise versa). According to the teachings of MDA (Marriage, Divorce, Adultery), the letter of the Law is to be obeyed, else it’s a matter of eternal damnation. That woman was in a "covenant marriage" with that son-of-Satan and even if divorced, she is to remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband, unless he dies. Being a child of God, she certainly can’t murder her evil ex-spouse, nor should she pray that God take his life (same thing). God doesn’t necessarily save that evil one, either (1 Cor 7:16). Is it righteous that she remain alone, raising her children and never have a Godly husband? For if she marries again, she is not only an adulteress, but her husband is now guilty of ongoing, non-repentant adultery because he married her?

Let’s call adultery for what it is. Jesus defined adultery clearly for us in Mat 5:32, Mat 19:9, Mark 10:11-12 and Luke 16:18. These all tell us that to be divorced and marry another is to commit adultery, as well as the one who marries a divorcee (whose covenant spouse still lives) is guilty of the same, thus breaking the seventh Commandment. With that in mind, let’s now go over to Hosea 4:14, for God appears to have MERCY in the following circumstance:

I will not punish your daughters when they commit whoredom [porneuó], nor your spouses when they commit adultery [moicheuó]: for themselves [the fathers/husbands] are separated with whores, and they sacrifice with harlots: therefore the people that doth not understand shall fall.” This is not only a consequence to such fathers/husbands, but the mercy of God upon their daughters and wives!

Some commentators state this means God will no longer discipline them, but hands them over to their own lusts. Not according to the Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary

14. I will not punish . daughters-I will visit with the heaviest punishments "not" the unchaste "daughters and spouses," but the fathers and husbands; for it is these who "themselves" have set the bad example, so that as compared with the punishment of the latter, that of the former shall seem as nothing [Munster].

Divorcing BAAL

I looked at Israel, who is the betrothed Bride of YHWH, according to Hos 2:19 “And I will betroth thee unto me for ever; yea, I will betroth thee unto me in righteousness, and in judgment, and in lovingkindness, and in mercies.” When a woman is betrothed to a man, she is considered his wife, as shown in Mat 1:19-20: “Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away [divorce] privily. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.”

Like Mary was to Joseph, Israel is the betrothed Bride of YHWH. However, in Jer 3:8 we read, “And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce;” In spite of this, God said in vs. 14 “Turn, O backsliding children, saith the LORD; for I am married unto you:” God certainly was not a treacherous Husband!

When I read Hos 2:16 “And it shall be at that day, saith the LORD, that thou shalt call me Ishi [loving Husband]; and shalt call me no more Baali [Slave-Master/Property-owner Husband]”, I wondered if ‘Baali’ meant betrothed husband. It actually means a fully consummated husband, one who has every right to divorce his wife with or without her consent. This then brought me to the god whom Israel was committing “adultery” with, namely BAAL. If Baal caused Israel to become an Adulteress by her idolatry, YHWH demanded she forsake Baal and return to her first-love Covenant with HIM (Rev 2:4).

Consider the Law of Moses for a moment. That Law is likened to a first husband, one who is against the Bride and condemns her.

1 Tim 1:9-10 “Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;”

If we look at Rom 7:3-4 we read:

“So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man. Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.”

Eph 2:15 tells us what happened to that first “husband”, thanks to our Savior, our original Bridegroom! “Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;” Where do we see “they are no more twain, but one flesh”? Mat 19:6 “Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.”

Mat 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
Mat 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

What GOD Has Joined Together?

Did God join Israel to Baal? Likewise, if a woman or man marries someone in ignorance who ends up practicing all the treachery of a son/daughter of Satan, can we dare say that God joined them together? Did Adam and Eve belong to Satan when they chose to become his servants? They still belonged to God, but became slaves to Baal! Just as Hosea had to go REDEEM (buy back) his WIFE from slavery, the whole New Covenant is about how our Bridegroom bought us back from slavery! Did ANYONE belong to Satan before they belong(ed) to the Creator? NO!! Acts 17:30 tells us, “And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent.”

I read how Israel was forbidden to marry foreigners and how in Ezra 10:3 they divorced them in repentance. Were these 'unlawful' marriages simply because they married foreign wives? Don't be ignorant! Consider Ruth, a foreigner, who joined the Jewish people and married Boaz! (Ruth 1-2). Likewise, many born-again believers who have come to realise they are living in adulterous marriages today have divorced that spouse in repentance and remain unmarried or returned to their covenant spouse. Israel was not to participate in any form of idolatry (introduced by foreign wives). They were to purge sinful behavior from amongst them, including adultery. Surely, God used Hosea’s marriage to a wife of prostitution as an example of God’s love and mercy, and she had to be the worst of the worst spouses! It's vital to note that Hosea was 1) directed by God to marry her and obeyed and 2) Gomer was a Hebrewess. Does this example of such a covenant marriage therefore, apply to believers who ignorantly married someone who ended up NOT of spiritual Israel (wolves in sheep's clothing), but rather are sons/daughters of Baal? Can we really say so?

I just want to point out an example of a marriage God did NOT join together. Just read the story of Esther. King Xerxes had a wife who would not submit to him as husband and king. God fore-ordained that the king would banish that wife and choose to marry Esther, a Hebrewess and God's servant. Esther was predestined by God to marry King Xerxes to save the Jewish people from Haman's destructive trickery. The Bible does NOT declare that King Xerxes had his original wife killed, nor does it state she died before he took Esther as his queen.

What if we were to take 2 Cor 6:14 as a commandment? “Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?” This is a preventative scripture! It does not mean we divorce our spouse because s/he is an unbeliever. Some unbelievers live peaceably and are wonderful spouses and parents. In fact, God’s Word states the unbelieving spouse is sanctified (set apart) by the faith of the believing spouse (1 Cor 7:14), so that their children are CLEAN. This does not constitute the unbelieving spouse as saved, however (1 Cor 7:16).

The Law of the LORD is stated clearly in 1 Cor 7:10-11

"And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart [chórizó: to separate, divide] from her husband: But and if she depart [Aorist Indicative - if she has departed or been divorced], let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband (see, he is yet her husband); and let not the husband put away [apostasion - a forsaking, spec. (bill of) divorce] his wife."

However, in 1 Cor 7:12-13 Paul goes on to say, “But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away [apostasion - a forsaking, spec. (bill of) divorce]. And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him [aphiémi - to send away, leave alone, permit].”

Regarding "let him not" and "let her not", let's go back to Mat 19:6 and compare it to what is known as the "Pauline Privilege" in 1 Cor 7:15:

  • Mat 19:6 "Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together [suzeugnumi: to yoke together], let not man put asunder [chórizó: to separate, divide]."
  • 1 Cor 7:15 "But if the unbelieving depart [chórizó: to separate, divide], let him depart [chórizó: to separate, divide]. A brother or a sister [believer] is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.

Do you think the Apostle Paul contradicted Jesus here? I think NOT. "What God has joined together, LET NOT man put asunder [chórizó]" and "If the UNBELIEVING depart, LET him depart [chórizó]" do not contradict, but clarify our LORD's intention for covenant marriage. We must keep in mind that Paul was an Apostle to the Gentiles, a people who never had the Law of God and had no knowledge of His Commandments. It is likely, most if not all Gentile marriages were yoked together in unbelief. Once they heard the gospel, one of the two might believe, while the other might not. Paul gave instructions regarding unequally yoked marriages because of this pre-condition.

Passover and Freedom from Slavery

Whenever I think of Passover, Jesus commanded His disciples in Luke 22:19, “this do in remembrance of Me.” The very first Passover was established when God chose to spare Israel from the final plague, just before Her deliverance from Egypt, when the angel of death was sent to claim the lives of every firstborn male (including animals) throughout the land. The death angel passed over their homes, sparing their lives, because the blood of a lamb was painted on their doorframes.

I liken Egypt to Satan’s enslavement of God’s Bride! YHWH delivered His betrothed Bride from slavery and expects Her to remain faithful to Him. I liken Egypt to ‘Baal’, the slavemaster/lord/'husband' of YHWH’s Wife! Should he use the ‘Law of God’ to entrap her and keep her from redemption by her loving Husband, “Ishi”?! See, 2 Cor 3:6 tells us “Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.”! Satan knows the letter kills and I, for one, am not going to proclaim eternal damnation on a woman or man that has been divorced from what MDA deems a 'covenant marriage' because of ignorance and blatant treachery. Again, God’s mercy is shown in Hos 4:14 for such cases.

Acountability and Compassion

I am not a proponent of divorce and remarriage by any means. I am not going to tell you to break a Commandment of God. The churches have FAILED to teach God’s perfect Law of marriage and divorce for centuries, resulting in complete ignorance of the sheep. What is the best we can do? Learn the Truth and teach it to your children! Prevent ongoing ignorance and its painful consequences!

  1. Do not fornicate prior to marriage (Deut 22:13-20; 1 Cor 6:18).
  2. Choose to marry a child of God (2 Cor 6:14),
  3. Give time for a betrothal to test the faithfulness/fidelity of a potential, future spouse. (Jewish marriage customs).
  4. Like Hosea, once in covenant, remain faithful through all things, past sins, adultery, extra-marital children, even abandonment. Work through it with God’s help! Did you know there is a presumed parentage law in the US that deems the child(ren) born of adultery to be the child(ren) of the husband? The biological father has no rights whatsoever (Hosea 1-3).
  5. If a divorce takes place, don’t marry again without seeking God's Word on the matter! Consider His definition of adultery in the gospels (Mat 5:32, Mat 19:9, Mark 10:11-12 and Luke 16:18)! Consider the seventh Commandment! (Ex 20:14) As God does with us (John 8:11), give your spouse time to repent and return to your covenant marriage, as God is doing with Israel. Forgive, show mercy, for as you do so to your covenant spouse, God promises to do to you (Mat 5:7; Luke 6:36).
  6. Do not divorce, but remain in covenant with your spouse until death (even if you live apart for periods of time to give room for soul-searching and repentance - 1 Cor 7:5). As Paul directed us in 1 Cor 7:11, if one is divorced, s/he is to remain unmarried or be reconciled to the spouse (1 Cor 7:10-16).
  7. Remember, remarriage while your covenant spouse still lives is adultery. God will have mercy upon whom He will have mercy (Hos 4:14; Rom 9:18).

This has not been an easy article to write. I don’t want to be held responsible for condoning divorce or remarriage. I uphold God’s Law on marriage and divorce; however, I had to speak my heart regarding the ignorant marriage of someone to another who is an evil person, resulting in divorce. I simply cannot see how God would enslave that one to such an evil spouse until death, or prevent him or her from a Godly marriage that honors covenant vows, both to God and to each other. Amen.

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Comments 73 comments

Ericdierker profile image

Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

Wow, you operate under a heavy burden. This was a heavy article that left me ill at ease. I truly believe that nowadays are different enough to look for the loving intent of verses not strict adherence to words written to a culture for whom women and children were property/slaves of men.

Also I wonder about church marriages versus civil marriages. Seems that if it was not blessed by clergy it is not marriage in a biblical sense.


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Marriage as God intended began at creation, all the way back in Gen 2:24 "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Jesus refers to this in the named 'adultery' passages of Mat 19:5 and Mark 10:8.

Malachi 2:16 tells us "For the LORD, the God of Israel, saith that he hateth putting away: for one covereth violence with his garment, saith the LORD of hosts: therefore take heed to your spirit, that ye deal not treacherously." The NIV makes this easier to understand: "The man who hates and divorces his wife," says the LORD, the God of Israel, "does violence to the one he should protect," says the LORD Almighty. So be on your guard, and do not be unfaithful."

Adam failed to protect his wife and that affected the entire human race. They both repented and never divorced each other. In fact, we don't see a single marriage within the people of God divorce each other. Israel certainly divorced their foreign wives in repentance, for not only would they mar the pure bloodline from which our Savior would be born, those foreign wives were bringing in Baal worship and so forth.

We can see in Mat 1:19-20 when 'divorce' was allowed (during the betrothal, and according to Deut 22:13-21 upon the discovery that the bride had 'played the whore in her father's house'). Had Joseph chosen to make Mary a 'public example', he could have had her stoned; rather, he chose to spare her life and divorce her quietly.

In the book of Hosea, however, we see all kinds of defilement to the covenant marriage, called together by God. She was a foreign wife (representative of the Gentiles grafted into Israel), was a prostitute by trade (unclean, lawless), bore two children by other men, abandoned Hosea and the children to return to prostitution, and was eventually sold into slavery. God did not tell Hosea to divorce her, but to go and buy her back and love her. This is a picture of God's love toward us.

The church has been misinterpreting Mat 5:32 as though 'fornication' includes 'adultery'. The cross-reference to Mat 5:32 is Deut 22 (divorce for fornication during betrothal, up to the wedding night and discovery of her deception). Divorce was not mandatory, but was 'legal', in that if either married again, it was not considered an adulterous marriage.

Likewise, we can look at how Jesus treated the woman caught in adultery (the punishment back them was she and her lover would be stoned to death, freeing the innocent spouses to remarry legally). Jesus forgave her, yet told her to "Go and sin no more". That type of adultery can be repented of; even the type when a man lusts after a woman in his heart (Mat 5:28). Divorce and remarriage adultery can only be repented of by a divorce, as with Israel divorcing their foreign wives.

Are we to heed the 10 Commandments, the seventh of which is "Thou shalt not commit adultery" and even the scriptures that tell us no adulterers will inherit the kingdom of God? (1 Cor 6:9) Well, according to the New Covenant of "Loving God and loving man", we could look at David and Bathsheba as an example. How many commandments did he break? He didn't 'love' God by keeping His commandments; he coveted another man's wife; stole her; he killed Uriah so he could 'lawfully' marry her. While he repented of his sin, God's discipline was heavy upon David and his family because of it.

Jesus said in John 14:21 "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him." Likewise, He said in Mat 7:21, "Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven."

There's a lot of corrup 'clery' and 'churches', so whether or not a marriage is blessed by either does not constitute a holy union before God. How many pastors are blessing adulterous unions today? As I said, Jesus calls adultery for what it is, yet appears not to punish for it in such a severe circumstance as shown in Hos 4:14. In this case, to divorce 'Baal' (a son-of Satan 'husband') is permissable and allows for remarriage. Jesus, the Almighty Judge, is the One to grant the certificate of divorce in such a case. I appreciate the read and comment, Erik Dierker. Always good to dialogue with you.


Tricia Ward profile image

Tricia Ward 3 years ago from Scotland

You would find the book Why not Women interesting ...different topic slightly...

Re this article I do not believe a loving Heavenly Father would ask you to stay in an abusive marriage. Fortunately for me I have a fab hubby.

I do have friends who have either made mistakes or have tried to persevere and then made a break. At the end of the day God knows our heart.

Yes there may be an ideal way of do it it at the end of the day God is the judge.... and I would not attempt to judge and condemn.


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Yes, Tricia Ward. If we knew the Truth from childhood, even in the examples of our parents, so much ignorance would not exist when it comes to the serious covenant of marriage BEFORE GOD...the PREVENTION of what our LORD defines as adultery. It's time to TEACH the Truth, we who have come to know it as it is written and given by our LORD Jesus.

He is the One speaking in Hosea 4:14 and fornication and adultery are yet defined in that passage - and it is the LORD Himself who judges righteously. In this case, the lack of punishment toward the daughters (fornication) and daughters-in-law (adultery) is a punishment of the fathers and husbands who have committed these abominations themselves, harming their daughters and daughters-in-law. We give all judgement to Him alone in this regard. God bless you, sister.


Jisblessed profile image

Jisblessed 3 years ago

Hi the hub is interesting and seem to be based on your statement, "Jesus was born Jewish and lived according to the Torah, which included the 10 Dabarim (Words/Laws/Commandments)."

That statement is true but you left off the other side of Jesus purpose on earth, though born under the law (law purpose was to show man he needed a savior because he could not keep all the law which meant death if he didn't) He also introduced, and redeem man from the law by fulfilling the law and dying and rising again with Grace and Truth. He restored us back to our original state with God. Jesus never taught the law though lived under it, His teaching was of Grace and Truth. Look at his teachings and parables. He never condemned the woman caught in adultery, the law livers wanted to stoned her. Look at all of those who opposed Jesus; law livers. Jesus never broke a law but came to the Jews to offer the new dispensation part of God's plan of redemption for man back to himself but the Jews/law livers wasn't trying to hear Him. So much could be said here but Grace is what everyone needs to discover the meaning of. And it is not just un deserve favor; much more. And it's why, no one has to stay in an abusive marriage. "where sin abounds grace do much more abounds!" and "Grace was in, " if she or he departs let them remain unmarried or else be reconciled unto her husband or wife, talking to 2 saved people. if one is a devil (unbeliever) let him depart you are not under bondage. What does that mean? Study GRACE. Everything is given us by God's grace through faith in the finished work of Jesus on the cross and resurrection. That's what I've learned and come to believe.


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Hi sister Jisblessed ~ I appreciate your thoughtful comment.

Some think the Law of God and the Law of Moses are the same Law. It is not so. The Law of God was written by His own finger (Ex 31:18) and this Law is eternal. The Law of Moses was "added because of transgressions" (Gal 3:19). We can see the distinction between them, in that the 10 were placed inside the ark of the Covenant (Ex 25:21) and the 'book of the Law' (the Law of Moses) was placed on the side of the ark of the Covenant (Deut 31:26). Jesus came to live under and completely fulfill the Law of Moses (Gal 4:4; Mat 5:17; Rom 10:4). The Law of God is still in effect today, even until He comes.

Let's look at Mat 19:17-18 as a proof-text: "but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. He saith unto him, Which ones? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,..."

Regarding 1 Cor 7:15 and the unbeliever departing, the word for 'depart' is the same as what is used in Mat 19:6 "Therefore, what God has joined together, let no man put asunder" - 5535 chórizó: to separate, divide. It is a separation, and perhaps even a divorce. Why I say this is because, if we go back to vs. 11 it states, "if she depart [5535], let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband." In the Aorist Indicative tense, this literally means, "if she has departed" or "if she has been divorced". So what does "a brother or sister is not bound in such cases" in vs. 15 mean? The word here is 1402 douloó: to enslave, bring under subjection (as a wife is subject to her husband).

I am inclined to agree with you that vs. 15 is dealing with an unequally yoked marriage, while vs. 11 is dealing with a covenant marriage of believers. This whole burden of how sons of Satan deceive and weedle their way into marrying a daughter of God (or vise sersa) to enslave them by the 'letter of the Law' (the believer is committed to following), is such an evil machination!

Now, if we go to vs. 39 of the same chapter, we read, "The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord." The word used for 'bound' here is deó: I bind, tie, fasten; I impel, compel; I declare to be prohibited and unlawful. Unlike the word 1402 douloó: to enslave, bring under subjection (as a wife is subject to her husband), used in vs. 11.

This brings us back to your comment, "He restored us back to our original state with God." Marriage as God intended began at creation, all the way back in Gen 2:24 "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Jesus refers to this in the named 'adultery' passages of Mat 19:5 and Mark 10:8.

You also correctly stated, "He never condemned the woman caught in adultery." So why do we condemn our covenant spouse caught in adultery by divorcing and marrying another, thus committing ongoing-non-repentant adultery? Is this what Jesus told this woman to do? No. His response to her was, "Go and sin no more." (John 8:11) On the other hand, if that spouse qualifies under Hosea 4:14, may we note "the people without understanding fall."

God bless you, sister.


Jisblessed profile image

Jisblessed 3 years ago

Thank you Judah, I would agree if we were to live under the Law what you are saying would probably be right. But we're no longer under the law. The law of Moses or the laws of God. When Jesus died for sin, He died once and for all sin, past, present and future. God took all the wrath we should have gotten and laid it upon Jesus, making him that supreme sacrifice for sins of the whole world. So when we accept Jesus as Lord and Savior there is then no condemnation for those that are in Christ Jesus. In other words, we've been forgiven for any and all sins. What we need to do is embrace the Grace of God through the faith we have in the finished work of Jesus.

You're right, God wants us to forgive other just as He has forgiven all of us. The only way a man or woman can do that is by the Grace of God through our faith in the finish work of Jesus. Jesus was trying to teach us how to be forgiving, honest, peacemakers, bearing all the fruits of the spirit. We can't do it with him in persons of the Holy Ghost inside of us and allowing and obeying His voice.

The law man couldn't keep in his own doings and strength, he needed a savoir. God knew man couldn't keep it but wanted man to come to him willingly, believing in his love for us. He never intended for us to work or labor for anything as Adam had it before his fall. Jesus restored us back and not only that but his blood keeps God judgement from forever coming on man again when he sin. Grace covers it just as it did with Moses and the children of Israel in the last plague of Egypt. He brought them out of slavery, bondage, and Jesus did the same thing, only Jesus freeing us is forever, no matter what.

Do God want us to sin, NO, stay married even in a bad marriage? Yes. But if the person is beating and violating you or your children, NO. You may leave. Even under the law, God honored Moses giving them a writing of divorcement. Leads me to believe under Grace and those types of situations, Grace will prevail and God will honor it.

One of the benefits of God's Grace is. it means God's ability to do what you cannot do. It's an enables you. But faith comes into it as well. God gave us all the measure of faith. Everyone's faith isn't operating on the same level at the same time all the time. So I cannot judge a person who's faith may not be strong enough to endure what I can endure. I can't label everyone as failing or sinner. I'm not longer under the law but Grace of God. Question: What do you know about the Grace of God?

Blessings to you as well.


Ericdierker profile image

Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

I am certain that the marriage of the "Law" must be according to the Law. I do not see weddings by a "justice of the peace" being such a marriage under the Law. I also do not see a deceiving groom or bride as being married under the law. They are simply married under the law of man and can therefor be undone by man.

How can a betrothed that is not under the law but under their own law be married. Hence the notion of and truth of Annulment.


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Jisblessed, I would have to say that the Word of God does not agree with you, when you stated, "But we're no longer under the law. The law of Moses or the laws of God." What does Jesus say?

As I wrote to brother Erik Dierker above:

Are we to heed the 10 Commandments, the seventh of which is "Thou shalt not commit adultery" and even the scriptures that tell us no adulterers will inherit the kingdom of God? (1 Cor 6:9) Well, according to the New Covenant of "Loving God and loving man", we could look at David and Bathsheba as an example. How many commandments did he break? He didn't 'love' God by keeping His commandments; he coveted another man's wife; stole her; he killed Uriah so he could 'lawfully' marry her. While he repented of his sin, God's discipline was heavy upon David and his family because of it.

It's important to note, that David NEVER did these things again. That's what repentance, leading to forgiveness is all about.

Jesus said in John 14:21 "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him." Likewise, He said in Mat 7:21, "Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven." Do we love God?

Your statement, "Jesus restored us back and not only that but his blood keeps God judgement from forever coming on man again when he sin" sounds like we can sin all the more so grace may abound. Paul said, "God forbid!" (Rom 6:1) We are exhorted in Jude 1:4 that those who believe this "are ungodly people, who pervert the grace of our God into a license for immorality and deny Jesus Christ our only Sovereign and Lord." That's what I know about grace. If we deny Him, He denies us!

I don't know that God 'honored' Moses allowance for divorce for the hardness of heart, because Jesus clarified God's Law in Mat 5:32, in direct response to their perverted understanding (or should I say 'ignorance') of the Law. I yet agree with you, that if someone married an evil, rebellious person that perverts the ways of God, s/he should be free from that bondage. Or should the perpetually, sinful spouse declare s/he is covered by the grace of God, no matter what, and if covered by God's grace, s/he should also extend the same grace? As Jude 1:4 says, the ungodly pervert the grace of God.


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Yes, brother Ericdierker ~ I think some in the MDA movement (while their intentions are honorable) put too much weight on a man-made piece of paper/declaration of a so-called 'marriage' and subsequent sexual union between two persons, after that civil union is witnessed. That, in their understanding, condones a 'covenant' marriage, if neither the bride or groom have ever 'married' before. Likewise, regardless of such wickedness one to the other, they are bound as one flesh for life, no exceptions. It then means eternal damnation, if they ever divorce and marry another. Surely, our culture is divorce and remarriage happy, and many simply choose to live a life of fornication or shack up in what is known as 'common law' marriages. This is NOT what God intended, nor approves of.

For believers, marriage IS a matter of God's Law, which was not just for the Jews (natural-born Israel), but is applicable to all who enter into that Marriage Covenant with our LORD and Savior. Adam and Eve's union was to manifest the image of the marriage Covenant between Christ and the Church, and so it was in the book of Ephesians, and is even to this day.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

And so we come to realize that the "marriage" is not so much to one another as it is to Christ. What loss there is in discord is a loss to Christ and not the other. Loyalty and honesty is to Christ forever not the other who is an adulterer. If there is adultery there is cause for a certificate of divorce.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

And how did Jesus handle the adulterous woman again, Ericdierker? Did God direct Hosea to divorce Gomer because she committed adultery? No. Jesus did not say we could divorce because of adultery, thus freeing us to marry another, which he calls adultery. Even when He gave His betrothed Bride, Israel, a certificate of divorce, He did not free her to marry another! He stated clearly, He was yet married to Her, in spite of the certificate! (Jer 3:8, 14).

If an adulterous spouse refuses to repent of the sin, so it is perpetual and ongoing, I would say that is reason for separation first ~ to see if s/he will come to repentance. Claiming Hosea 4:14 as reason to divorce and remarry does not make the divorce or remarriage lawful, for they are yet called adulteresses in that passage. God's punishment being withheld from them for such is the mercy of God, and the judgment to their husbands, in this scenario.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

If my wife sin against God and I, by being adulterous. Do I condemn her? No it is not within my power. If as a husband, I sin against my wife through adultery and physical abuse. Does she condemn me? No it is not within her power.

But when a spouse moves forward to preach and bring the Word of God to her new Husband and Children. If I was given the question, to condemn her or Glorify God through my praise of her, which should I choose and how much more should I chose it for my wife and children and followers.

If condemnation be the goal - so be it! If love be the goal - so be it!


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Yes, praise God, brother Ericdierker! I'm not certain what you meant when you said "a spouse move forward to preach and bring the Word of God to her NEW husband and children"? No. She is not to condemn you and marry another (nor you her), without giving ample time for repentance and reconciliation, according to the Law of Christ. Even then, remarriage is adultery, according to Christ - yet, will God punish or show mercy in such a circumstance?

May we show the love of Christ to our covenant spouse and serve the LORD with all our hearts! We KNOW God honors covenant marriage (joined together as one flesh by Him) and will chastise His children when they are disobedient and harming others! I've heard testimony after testimony of God's chastisement, bringing repentance and reconcilation! THIS is the GOAL!! And we press into it ~ into Him!! God bless you!


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

That repentence and that love. Is our covenant. You fulfill by your care here. Y0u anguish and mourn. You bleed and you acknowledge. And we pray for you. When you repent you turn your ways around.

And He said to the adulteress "go and sin no more". And I swear she did not and was wonderful in our God's eyes.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Thank you, brother Erikdierker...God is both righteous and merciful ~ to know Him is to love Him ~ to be given the Truth carries great responsibility, not only for ourselves, but for what we teach or avoid teaching others. Count the cost, and count it all joy. We have gone through and yet go through repentance, when the knowledge of the Truth is given and when we confess our sins, forsake them and walk on His path, He is faithful to forgive us and keep us on His path of righteousness and blessing...just like Israel, just like that woman caught in adultery! We who have been forgiven much, love much. Amen.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

No my sister, for forgiveness is just the beginning through fire you have been baptized, Through self denial you have been graced. You have worn a yolk of mans' lack of forgiveness to rise among God's gifts.

Some will not hold you to their bosom.

Let me tell you the story of the woman who was abused but would not cotton abortion, this was her third child. My mother put her up in safety and we began the unseen railroad journey to a new land called California. She arrived in my poorhouse and home. And my wife and children gave them a bath and clothes off their back. And they no better or less than us. We grew in love for each other and her sins were not in my home. She was a child of God. We were only made better by her presence.

Who are you? Who are you to judge you? My God has a plan and you and your divorced is part of it. Amen


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Jisblessed 3 years ago

Judah, the law of God has been fulfilled by Jesus death, burial, and resurrection. Jesus started a new thing the old testament spoke of by issuing in Grace and Truth. I guess it would be better to say, the law of God, (man could not keep), has the new and better covenant(laws). When Jesus said you have heard eye for an eye, BUT I say unto you.... And again you have heard, I'm sure you know the scripture. He was speaking of old testament, laws. BUT was entering the new covenant of Grace and Truth. The Sabbath Day in the old testament was a law but in new testament the sabbath is no longer a day but a person. Jesus is Lord of the sabbath. And we're to honor God everyday as a sabbath. To do good or to do evil is God concern about us daily.

This leading me to say. no, Grace is not a license to sin. But to lead us away from sin by embracing knowing how much God loves you. It's to draw in the ways of God and not he acts alone. We must know who Christ is and who we are in Him? As Christ is, so are we in this world. We are seated in heavenly place in Christ. When a person learn and is filled with the meaning of what Jesus have I have, what Jesus can do I can do. When a person realize how much they are loved by God, who never wanted to be separated from us and was willing to take on the form of man and come and die for everyone in the world sins so we don't have to die and spend eternity in hell, why would anyone realizing that and want to go to heaven want to sin? With Love and Kindness have I drawn thee. If someone take it as a license to sin, they missed the meaning of Grace. And no one need a license anyway, they sin anyway. Man cannot stop sinning unless they have the Holy Spirit inside them and surrender their will over to Him to work through them and deliver them from the sins they have. And if he sin even with the Holy Spirit, the Grace of God cleanses Him, through faith in the finish work of Christ on the cross.

God is the one that stop sin, not man. Man can try to fail, that's what the law proved. You can't keep it without me helping you, was the message God was sending.

I can't say David didn't love God, when God said David is a man after my own heart. God knew what David would do before he did it. And yet he says, he's a man after my own heart. A show of Grace in old testament. Abraham lied said Sarah was his sister, God didn't charge him with sin, yet God made him the father of Faith. Grace again. And even Hosea marrying the whore and had to buy her back. Grace, it's what God did for us through Jesus. He bought us back.

Paul was commissioned by God to go to the gentiles with the message of Grace. And though he said what shall we say then, shall we continue in sin, God forbid; it's the same thing I'm saying. Should I not extend the grace of God to man in fear of them taking it as a license to sin, so I keep them under the law? If you keep the law then you have fallen from grace.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Bless your heart, Ericdierker. Your mother and you, your wife and children were 'angels', God's ministers of grace to that woman of God and her children. Your testimony cuts into my heart, for I can relate to that woman...God truly takes care of His Bride, in sickness and health, richer or poorer, better or worse, and even overcame death so that there will never be a parting from our Bridegroom ~ ever!


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Your message is beautiful, Jisblessed, yet the Word of Christ disagrees that the 10 Commandments have been abolished, as was the Law of Moses. I strongly suggest asking your pastor. Yes, our Sabbath rest is in Christ, documented in Heb 4:1-11. We are to test all things by the Word, amen, and we are to subject ourselves to the Truth of the Word, and abide in it.

You spoke of how "Jesus said you have heard eye for an eye, BUT I say unto you...." (Mat 5:39), but let's talk about this for a moment, and reference vs. 27-28 (since the topic here is specifically adultery) "Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart." You think that was part of the Old Covenant? Absolutely not. He took the outward keeping of the Commandments and brought them into the heart. Heb 10:16 PROVES this: "This is the [new] covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;"

To say all our sins are forgiven, past, present and future, no matter what we do, is the 'tickling ears gospel', for many would interpret that to mean they can continue in their sinful living without conscience. We can see conscience and the struggle with sin in Rom 7:15-8:1. Surely, "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk NOT AFTER THE FLESH, but AFTER THE SPIRIT." Look at Mat 7:23 "And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’"

Perhaps I should ask, and you certainly don't have to tell me or anyone else, for that matter, but are you in what Jesus would call an adulterous marriage? It is not my place to judge you, and I say, let the Holy Spirit have His way, which is to either chasten you to call you out of darkness into His marvelous Light, or show you His mercy because of your circumstances, should they align with those of Hosea 4:14.


Bill 3 years ago

Well, as JD already knows, I am married to a woman who was previously married and divorced. Her 1st husband treated her terribly and made her feel worthless (and trust me, I see evidence of that everyday). He used her for financial gain, cheated on her, and then left her high and dry. She had no choice in the matter. He told her that he never "really" loved her at all. Can you imagine what this does to somebody? For one thing, it can damage your self confidence and leave you feeling worthless, like you are just not good enough. If there can be an innocent party in this instance of divorce, my wife would be it.

Now having said that, let's look at Matthew 5:32 - " But I say unto you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery."

It's interesting that the innocent party is allowed to remarry. Although it is not stated in the text, the allowance for remarriage after a divorce is God’s mercy for the one who was sinned against, not for the one who committed the fornication . There may be instances where the “guilty party” is allowed to remarry, but Jesus doesn't speak of it in this versre. Why? I don't know. But my main question here is this: Is Jesus defending the innocent and punishing the guilty in this verse? Or is He setting the parameters for divorce in general? If it is the former than so be it. That's easy enough to understand. If it is the latter then does it apply in reverse (i.e. can the woman divorce the man if she finds he has fornicated)? Also, can the man fornicate or does the "report of fornication" only apply to women?

I don't have the answers to all of these questions and so that's why I read my Bible and pray. God WILL give me the information that I need to make a "right judgement". Bottom line is that my wife married her 1st husband on a whim and paid the price. She got saved not long after that and waited for a Christian man to love. She found me, a man who desires to love God at all costs and wants his household to serve the Lord. I married her and promised God I would love her and NEVER let her go. I intend to keep that promise.

Let's face it, we ALL fall short. Amen? I certainly do. But I keep going because I love God so much. And, I absolutely know he loves me. I knew of Matthew 5:32 before I got married to my wife but I read it as (sexual immorality) because that was what I was taught and understood it to mean. After reading Juhda's hub on marriage I got concerned. I absoutely do NOT want to live in perpetual adultery and so I have dug in to study the matter. And now I can tell you I am at peace with my decision to remain married to my wife. I promised God I would not leave her and I will not. Something deep down tells me that if I did divorce her I would be doing wrong.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Brother Bill, I'm so glad you have come to share your testimony. I would like readers to know that Bill's marriage situation contributed to my writing this hub, searching the Word for God's heart. I, having been previously married (to a three-times divorced man) and horribly treated/abused, escaping with my child by the divine hand of God, am thankful he was NOT my 'covenant' spouse. According to MDA, had he been what they deem my 'covenant' spouse (each never married before), I would have to remain unmarried or be reconciled to him, until he dies. Well, his 'covenant' wife still lives, and she was a victim of his terror, having a gun put in her mouth (as just one example) and his running off with their nanny, whom he married and abused, also. Should she have stayed unmarried all these years, while he's now married six wives and has still not repented of domestic violence (and so many more sins I don't need to get into)? That's a HORRIBLE application of the 'The Law" to tell her she's doomed to eternal hell, if she doesn't 'endure till the end' as an unmarried woman, for she's yet married to him in God's eyes.

Bill, you've never married before, and while 'logou porneias' is 'the report of fornication' (betrothal fornication) in Mat 5:32, as with Joseph and Mary in Mat 1:19-20 and Deut 22:13-21, NOT adultery (moicheuó), that Jesus gives as lawful grounds for divorce (breaking of the marriage contract signed upon betrothal) AND remarriage by both (there is a lesser bride price for a 'divorced' woman, as well as a non-virgin - consider Hosea's wife, Gomer), in that the second spouse IS considered the covenant spouse (not adultery), my question in this hub is, did 'Baal' (a son-of-Satan) deceive your now wife into marriage, a marriage that was never joined by God? I liken this to Israel, who married foreigners (Baal) and were ordered to 'divorce Baal' (Baal means consummated husband/slave-master/lord) and return unto their first love, YHWH. Just as our Bridegroom rescued us from enslavement to Baal (Satan), I see you did this for your wife.

God may very well view your marriage to her as the 'covenant' marriage. You are a child of God and are her head (Savior). As God has rescued her from Baal, she is to honor your marriage vows before Him until death do you part. If you or she fall into adultery, that is not grounds for divorce. That adultery can be repented of, whereas another marriage would be an adulterous one, ongoing and non-repentant. The Law of remaining single or reconcile apply to both of you. As you read my hub "The Only Cause for Divorce" (this is lawful divorce), you read the story of Hosea's marriage to Gomer, joined by God. If there be an example of a wayward spouse, that takes the cake! Even then, God never told Hosea to divorce her and marry another.

Knowing you are in a covenant marriage, if you became as the husbands in Hosea 4:14 (turning to Baal), and your wife fled and married another, she would indeed be guilty of ongoing adultery, yet God's Word says He will not punish her, as it is a judgment against you.

May we see the difference in both these scenarios. One is a repentance from marrying Baal in ignornace (divorce of a son-of-Baal) and redemption by God through a true child of God, covenant spouse. The second is a covenant marriage, poisoned by apostacy of a partner and God's mercy upon the victimized spouse who flees to another marriage for this extreme reason.

Your testimony is a precious pearl. May God bless your marriage.


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Jisblessed 3 years ago

To Judah and Bill. the purpose of my comments about the grace of God was in hope of everyone reading not to fall into condemnation of any kind. It's Great Bill you decided to stay with your wife, God's Grace will strengthen and keep you. And thank God Judah you survived your encounter. God's grace was there. Thank God!

I would like to say that according to ICorth. 7:15... it states if the unbelieving departs let him go or her. Brother or Sister are not under bondage in such cases. God's Grace speaking through Paul. God has called us to PEACE. I hear Grace crying out.

The unbelieving to me is a person who's not following after Jesus and his commandments and yields his ways over to Satan. He or she is either a devil transformed into angel of light or have fallen from grace.

I was taught that God doesn't honor the marriages outside of Him (before we received salvation). But the covenant marriages are in Christ, both parties saved and He fully holds us to. Amen to that. But if by chance one was an angel of darkness, and I got tricked, God will free me (forgive me).

I've heard people say, if you marry a devil, that's your devil. And I never could understand why a loving God would make people stay with a devil or leave the devil and stay alone for the rest of your life.

Last Words/ where sin abounds, grace much more abounds./ and have thy faith, have it to thyself before God. Bottom line it's between you and God. Seems as if I was off topic but I on it all the time.

God Bless you both with His Amazing Grace!


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Jisblessed, I chose not to post your 1331-word comment, as it's basically stating your previously stated position of the Law of God being included in the 'fullfilled' Law of Moses, in that we are not 'under' the Law of God any longer. I continue to disagree strongly.

I will post your answer to my question to you regarding whether or not you are in an adulterous marriage, so readers will make no assumption by a lack of answer on your part:

"And I would like to answer the question for me, no I'm not in an adulterous marriage. Neither do I fornicate not being married. What I am is a believer in the finished work of Christ."

You may want to write a hub and I will send your comment back to you, if you so wish to use it for a hub on the END of the Law of God and the walk of grace, as you understand it.

I appreciate your latest comment, as it is heart-felt and a blessing, I'm sure to brother Bill, as well as myself. Thank you and God bless you.


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Jisblessed 3 years ago

Amen I agree with your decision. And if any of my post offends, please delete them as well. I agree to disagree. God bless you as well.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

All glory to God, sister Jisblessed. I very much appreciate your contribution to this heart-felt discussion.


Ericdierker profile image

Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

I got to tell this discussion is upsetting. I see Christians who are lamenting for each other. I see interpretation that prohibits looking for and finding love. I am sorry but that is just weird. We are not talking lust and lascivious behavior here.

Leave the danged dead to bury the dead. That past is death and the future in love is Life.

These people who interpret scripture to harm the heartbroken and weak are themselves weak in spirit. If scripture is so corrupted that a battered spouse or an abused spouse cannot seek cannot find refuge in Love than take that interpretation and shove it. These folks who doubt God's love do not have it.

"a wronged woman with child is not to find renewed happiness, a home and Love". Well in my thoughts and love that is some sick notion.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

I agree, wholeheartedly, brother. In reading Matthew 19:6 I saw something very important that came out earlier in one of my comments, yet stayed with me to 'get it'. Let's look at the passage:

“Therefore they are no more two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder.” First, we see a condition of “What God has joined together” as... that which no man should “put asunder”. The Greek word for “joined” is suzeugnumi: to yoke together. The Greek word for “asunder” is chórizó: to separate, divide. What I see is, in this verse, is chórizó is the antithesis of suzeugnumi. It means DIVORCE or two united as one (suzeugnumi) becoming two (chórizó).

An MDA proponent will point out 40 other passages where chórizó means to leave one city and go to another, so it merely means 'depart', not divorce. Now, I don't mean to come across as 'mocking', but rather sadly reuking, for if we were to apply THAT definition to Mat 19:6, we would read, “Therefore they are no more two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man geographically separate from one another”?? Wow, all military personnel best not be deployed away from their spouses! Uriah certainly broke the Covenant law, and after the first year exempt from the battlefield with a new wife (according to Deut 4:5) the husband would be breaking the marriage covenant by returning to war!

So, I boldly go back to 1 Cor 7:15 to what is called the "Pauline privilege" for it states (again, in context of marriage to an unbeliever), "But if the unbelieving depart (chórizó ), let him depart (chórizó ). A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace." Wait! I thought Mat 19:6 said "let no man separate/depart" Here, Paul says, "let him depart" Why is this? Because it must mean, in context of Mat 19:6 that "God has not joined them together". Simple equation, in my book.

On the other hand, in a marriage of believers (what God has joined together), if the believing wife has departed or been divorced (Aorist indicative), as stated in vs. 10-11, she is to remain without a husband (unmarried is the definition, so she's obviously divorced) or be reconciled to her husband.

Thus, regarding the words 'not under bondage' of the "brother or sister" whose unbelieving spouse has departed (chórizó), in context I believe "bound" and "not under bondage" are directly related = bound by Law to her husband or not bound by Law to her husband (and vise versa).

Compassion! Jesus severed our 'marriage' (bondage/enslavement) to Baal and took us to be His Bride. He is our FIRST LOVE, our Covenant Spouse and He would not take the members of His body and enslave them to Baal! He is the Judge who grants the divorce from Baal! Did you know the root word of forgive is the same as divorce? Does that mean we divorce 70 x 7 in a day? God forbid ~ no, that would be Baal's twisted interpretation!! Oh, that we have the eyes and ears of the Spirit and the heart of compassion in all we do.

And P.S. In my first comment response to you above, I stated that Gomer (Hosea's wife) was a foreign wife. I assumed so because of the nation of Gomer and her father's 'foreign' name; however, I've come to find out she was a Hebrewess. So, Hosea did not marry a foreign wife, of which God forbade Israel to do ~ in that case, Israel divorcing their foreign wives did not constitute "what God had joined together", nor did it make them adulterers for re-marriage to Israeli wives!!

God bless us as we press on with balance of Truth and the compassion of our God.


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skye2day 3 years ago from Rocky Mountains

JD I can see this would be a very difficult writing. It is difficult to comment on sister. Thank the Lord our God for HIS mercy, grace, forgiveness and redemption. Thank God for HIS new covenant and sending His only son for our sins. The Law was given to point out to us we needed a Savior and cannot keep His commands. We cannot be perfect, amen. It is when we are born again into the family of God our sins start to fall from us because of the Spirit of God in us changing our hearts to Jesus. Glory to GOD.

In th e world we live many just walk when times get difficult. I know what it is like to be unequally yoked. Lonely! Children of God marry one who loves the Lord God, Amen! He tells us these things for our Blessing.

JD many Blessings on your journey. Do come for a visit and say hello. May the light of Christ keep shining in you on these pages and in our lost world sister. Love, Skye


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Hello, sister Skye ~ I appreciate your heart of compassion, as yes, this is a difficult subject and for that, probably most churches avoid the teaching and preach 'love and grace' in such avoidance. Marriage (being equally yoked) is meant to be 1 man + 1 woman 4 Life, until death do they part (and there's even some doctrines that believe, even then, there is no separation, for they are one flesh now and for eternity). I don't see that in scripture, so I don't teach it.

The ideal is what God created, and as new creations, being restored to our right relationship with God as it was in the beginning, before the fall, and since sin no longer has dominion over us, that we should exemplify this regenerated life according to His Spirit when we are born again and claim His name (character/reputation).

Unfortunately, we fall short, even still. Some are more committed to God and their mate than the other. Husbands and wives treat each other contrary to Scripture, contrary to how Christ and His Bride are to relate to each other. As the betrothed Husband to Israel, God was not always 'happy' and at times quite distressed, even angry; yet, He remains faithful to Her. Then we have unequally yoked marriages, where unbelieving spouses have no honor to a moral Law or accountability in a personal walk with God, SELF is on the throne and marriage is not about SELF, amen.

Paul's wise advice to the unmarried and widows in 1 Cor 7:8 is "It is good for them if they abide even as I." He knew, being an apostle to the Gentiles, that most of those existing marriages were not done with any knowledge of Christ and His Word. Unlike Jewish culture, who knew the Law of God. Why did Jesus take the written Law and bring it into our hearts? It's a HIGHER Law. The Law was not intended to destroy, but to bring Life. And if anyone uses the Law to enslave someone into bondage to Baal, as defined in this writing, I do not see the Law of the Spirit in that. We are not to reject the Law of God or take advantage of our freedom in Christ, for God knows our hearts, amen.

It's good to see you, sister Skye. God bless you as you press on in Him ~ in His Love and Life, according to the Law of the Spirit (Rom 8:2).


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

Are we in agreement that marriage vows and the breaking of them is a pardonable sin. That as children we are free to move forward.

If it is otherwise considered and an not be calm with that. Bad things happen, our job is to move on and not judge. My love for my second wife is true and blessed and real and now. My first wife's adultery and sins and divorce are past me. Or am I condemned?

I love my first wife still and the wonderful children we share. But if someone says I now live in sin, I challenge them to the first stone. And even more so for the woman who has child.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Erickdierker, I am not your Judge; the Word of God is. Based on my studies and writings, I would say:

If your first wife had never been married before (nor had you), and she ended up behaving like a 'daughter of Baal', in that she had no moral Law whatesoever and treated you destructively on an ongoing basis, then to divorce that daughter of Baal and marry a believer in a marriage joined by God is not adultery and is bound to the Law of God.

If she was an unbeliever (and you a believer) and she left you and divorced you, and you then married a believer, thus exercising the 'Pauline Privilege', your current marriage is a covenant marriage joined by God and subject to the Law of God.

If she merely committed adultery (and it's not a mere sin), did you give her time to repent (stop) and reconcile the marriage? Or did you judge her as dead right away, leave, divorce her and remarry in no time flat? Did you already have an interest in the wife you are married to now, while you were married to your first wife (whether you committed actual adultery with her or not)?

Ask yourself these questions to determine whether or not you are in an adulterous marriage and if you are, God will chasten you until you return to your covenant spouse. Rushing into remarriage PREVENTS repentance and reconciliation!

If the applicable, biblical conditions apply to your first marriage (non-repentant daughter of Baal; unbeliever departing and divorcing you; you gave your wife time to repent and reconcile before divorcing and remarriage; you did not already have a covetous heart toward the woman you are married to now), then the marriage you have now is your covenant marriage, your first forgiven as a marriage not joined by God. I haven't even asked you if you married a divorced woman and whether she would answer these questions in the same way...

That's what I would say.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

JD that is the best breakdown I have ever seen. Perfectly worded.

It is almost as though you read my whole story. Let me add the happy ending because of the works of the Lord. After about five years from separation (3 from divorce) God befell on me a horrible terminal sickness. My ex of course came to my side with our children and in the months of crisis my ex returned to God. Repented and through Christian counselling we tried to reconcile. Remarriage was not to be. But agape love was meant and happiness and joy was meant to be and our children were raised in a wonderful active church family.

My remarriage was ten years later, to a Buddhist who is now a very happy baptized Christian with our baptized son who loves Jesus.

My ways are not His ways and His ways are magnificent. Let us not restrict God's glory by restricting our Love.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

I guess I find it hard to understand, that if God brought your illness on to bring your wife to repentance unto God, and if you both went to Christian counseling to reconcile the marriage, why you both decided not to? God gave you the opportunity to do so. Having said that, I have not walked in your shoes and I dare not judge. I would say, that you then chose not to marry a child of God ~ however, she has come to be a child of God, perhaps through you and all your children know God. I pray your children will be taught the perfect will of God in regard to marriage, for many times, children are either afraid to marry, or marry with the idea they can divorce and remarry without being too concerned about it ~ just 'claim the blood'. O, God knows our hearts and ultimately, we are accountable to Him, heart-to-heart, spirit-to-Spirit.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

Oh our decision about non reconciliation was with constant prayer, meditation and close counseling with a very fine priest. Both she and I now agree that that process was in fact to teach our children the sanctity of marriage and too break an inherited cycle. A remarriage would have been a new covenant.

And we are all convinced the path was to bring into the world the newest Christian Dierker.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

An inherited cycle of divorce and remarriage? Did that inherited cycle get broken or did it continue? How did your decision teach your children the sanctity of marriage? Just some critical questions. Again, as I state in this hub and my other two (thus far) on this subject, I am not a proponent of divorce and remarriage, because Jesus does indeed define it as adultery. As with Hos 4:14 (that cirucmstance), God does not punish, nevertheless, it is called adultery.

If you divorce a child of Baal (one-time lesson in learning), and marry a believer, I believe that second marriage is the covenant one. If an unbeliever divorces the believer, the second marriage of the believer is the covenant marriage. I see that your wife repented and became a child of God; you were a child of God and yet you both abandoned your reconciliation that God provided. You married a Buddhist, not a Christian, regardless of the fact she has become a Christian now. Your children have witnessed that two Christian parents can divorce and remarry and call it blessed? In this scenareo, I cannot say I am in agreement that your marriage is a covenant marriage to this second woman, priest or no priest. Jesus is our High Priest and if we are truly His children, we should follow His Word and honor our covenant with Him to remain married to another child of God (your wife repented) in sickness and in health (you had an illness), richer or poorer, for better or worse, in all things, until death do you part. Did your previous wife remarry also, or is she unmarried? If she has not remarried, this should speak loud and clear to you. Even if she has, both of you need to seek God's perfect will, for if He deems your second marriage as adultery and it does not not fall under His mercy as shown in Hosea 4:14, it is ongoing, non-repentant adultery of which will cost you the kingdom.

"Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven." Mat 7:21

I pray you can receive this word with love and know my heart desires the perfect will of God in your lives...yours, your covenant wife, the woman you're married to now, and all your children.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

You are working way to hard to be under a heavy burden of law. This reminds me of the "trapping questions" of the Sadducee's. I also note that your determination of right and wrong are taken from scripture regarding Jewish law except for Pauline. Which comes with a different result.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Well, Ericdierker, I cannot tell you what you want to hear, unlike your priest, and consequences of unpopularity are no surprise to me. I love you enough to tell you the Truth.

We've examined what the Word says, and even the Pauline Privilege is clear as to the circumstances given (an unbeliever divorces a believer, freeing the believer to marry a believer as a covenant spouse). The earliest church fathers did not give any allowance for divorce, let alone Jesus (He only gave the lawful allowance for betrothal fornication). I've examined Israel's enslavement in Egypt (as an ignorant person being enslaved to a child of Baal who enforces 'God's Law' of 'till death do us part' for malicious purposes). I've examined Israel's whoredom with Baal, even called an Adulterous nation because of it, and the call of God for Her to repent and turn back to Her Covenant Spouse, YHWH. None of these sceanrios align with your given testimony of a repentant, covenant spouse being divorced by a man who claims to be a child of God. Furthermore, you will therefore cause your covenant spouse to commit adultery, any time she joins herself physically with a man or marries him, for God sees her as still married to you and you her. Not only that, but the wife you are now with, as a babe in Christ, has no idea that she, too is constituted an adulteress. You are preventing her (if she doesn't know better) from the covenant spouse God had planned for her.

Should you repent and return to your covenant spouse, God will forgive the adulterous marriage and the wife you now have will no longer be guilty of adultery and she is free to marry her covenant spouse. Her marriage to you is not joined by God. Again, I base this on the information you yourself have provided.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

Well JD we will disagree on that.

During the time of the writings of the scripture and to whom they were addressed, women were chattel property of men. That was also according to the law of the time. Is a wife still the property of the man?

According to strict interpretation the law never changes. So according to the law of Israel at the time, you have no right to speak with me directly. You may only speak to me under the authority of your husband as in acts 18:26

I would suggest a reading regarding slaves: (Exodus 21:1–11; Leviticus 25:39–55; Deuteronomy 15:12–18), as the New Testament also provides guidelines on slavery (Ephesians 6:5–9; Colossians 3:22–25; 4:1; I Timothy 6:1; I Peter 2:18–21),

And I would suggest a reading on polygamy: Deuteronomy 21:15 begins, If a man has two wives, one beloved, and another hated…, and polygamy appears in the Old Testament as early as Genesis 4:19

By your ultimate interpretation my young 3 year old son is a bastard child born of evil who cannot attain purity of any sort. Your rationales and quotations are good and valid but your conclusion not in Keeping with Christ.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Ericdierker, Did you treat your covenant spouse as a Baali (slave master, 'lord'), since you are her 'head' and divorced her? A Baali could divorce his wife, with or without her consent. Do you consider your current wife, property? That's not my call.

So because I bring to you the Word, and it doesn't condone your situation, you now say a woman was forbidden to speak to any man other than her husband in the Old Testament? Chapter and verse, please. And you quote Acts 18:26 to claim I now have no authority to speak the Word to you? I realize your point, but I can't tell you how predictable it is that men will basically tell me to 'be silent', when they don't like what I'm saying, even if it is the Truth.

Or I may speak to you, under the authority of my husband? Fortunately, for me, my Husband is Christ alone, so I'd say He gives me the authority to proclaim His Word. I am not your wife, therefore, I am not 'subject' to you as my 'head', which in context of Eph 5:23 and the definition of kephale, means 'Savior' of His body (His Wife).

Polygamy is not currently lawful, as it was back then. If it were, you would be the husband, in every sense of the word, to both of your wives. According to Romans 13 (submission to governing authorities/law of the land) and 1 Tim 1:6; 3:2 and 3:12 (law of the Church), a man in respectable leadership of the flock is to be the husband of one wife, not one wife at a time.

God named Gomer's children of adultery Lo-Ruhamah (Hos 1:6 - no compassion) and Lo-Ammi (Hos 1:9 - not my people), until the marriage was reconciled, in which case they were renamed Ruhamah (compassion) and Ammi (my people). Your child by your current wife is innocent, for that little one has not sinned. Of such is the kingdom of heaven; for this reason, Christ died for us.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

First I thank you JD for keeping my head in the word and in depth on such a global issue.

Here was my point: Our laws have changed, no slavery, no polygamy, no ownership rights, a woman has equality by law (maybe not truth). Children are no longer property. There are now 3 types of legal marriages, civil, common and Holy rights.

When I was born I was an illegitimate bastard which in fact carried some legal baggage not to mention social stigma. Now an adopted child is the same as a biological one. And as I said all the scripture quoted except Pauline are specifically directed to Jews of the time. Not gentiles and for sure not to Christians. As you point out: : "Polygamy is not currently lawful, as it was back then. If it were, you would be the husband, in every sense of the word, to both of your wives. According to Romans 13 (submission to governing authorities/law of the land) and 1 Tim 1:6; 3:2 and 3:12 (law of the Church), a man in respectable leadership of the flock is to be the husband of one wife, not one wife at a time."" (and even this was directed to people in the role of Deacon or above)

And so now we have divorce as the law of the land and annulment.

Please note because it is 2013 you do have full authority to speak to me and rebuke me even as a woman. Showing that that law is dead and should be. Nowhere in the Bible New or Old are women to be teachers the only exception is in acts. Whenever and however to old testament refers to teachers they must be men. But as I say, that law was for particular people at a particular time, and I do not sin by being taught by a woman.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Erickdierker, I am surprised our dialogue continues and thus it must be of the Spirit and unto His glory. I pray our discussion bears fruit to all who are lead to come and read.

In response to your comment above, if both the saved and unsaved follow the same laws of the land, where is the difference? And, by what Law will both the saved and the unsaved be judged? (John 12:48) Do you think all who stand before the Almighty Judge, Jesus Christ, on the last day will be able to claim the law of the land as reason for breaking God's commandments? How about “Well, my ‘priest’ or ‘pastor’ told me so"? Are you a proponent, then, that the Law of God is of no real value to New Testament Christians?

Jesus said in John 14:21, "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him."

In regard to polygamy, you can’t claim that you are not an adulterer, but a polygamist, because you divorced your covenant wife and are no longer meeting the husband’s duty to your wife. If you die, all you have goes to your current wife, not to your covenant wife (just an example).

I have a hub called “Liberty for Women in Christ” that I recommend you read, so you understand the mighty use of Godly women in the Bible, both married (Junia, Priscilla) and unmarried (Mary Magdalene, the woman at the well, the four virgin daughters that were prophetesses). A woman could even prophesy in the Congregation (1 Cor 11:5). The husband is to be the Savior of his wife, as Christ is; the husband is to love his wife as Christ loved the Church and gave Himself for Her. They submit to one another in different ways (Eph 5:21). The husband ‘ruling’ over his wife was the curse given after the fall in the Garden of Eden (Gen 3:16) and has been lifted by the cross of Christ (restoration) – Gal 3:28; Col 3:10. As far as the gift of teaching, that is my calling. As the Bereans, everything I say and teach is to be tested by the Word, not by the world. I am no one’s ‘authority’. The Word of God is the Authority.

Regarding the Law for Christians ~ Let's consider the man cast out of the church at Corinth, for a moment. If he was not the biological son of his father’s wife (perhaps polygamy or a marriage after the death of his biological mother), and since the sexual behavior with her was called ‘fornication’ (porneias), this indicates she was not married to a living spouse, else it would have been adultery (moicheia). Nor, was it incest (aimomixía). What was Paul’s order for such a case? To turn that man over to Satan for the destruction of his flesh, that his soul MIGHT be saved in the last day (1 Cor 5:5). Wait? I thought he was a church goer and the grace and blood of Christ set us free from the Law?

Likewise, what does Paul direct Christians to do, when in fellowship with such a ‘so-called brother’ in vs. 11? “But now I have written unto you not to keep company, if any man that is called a brother be a fornicator, or covetous, or an idolater, or a railer, or a drunkard, or an extortioner; with such an one no not to eat.” I would say the Law of God was to be adhered to and honored by all claiming His name. Did you know ‘name’ means character/reputation?

Now, let’s go over to Herod the Great and the beheading of John the Baptist. Herod was an Edomite (not Jewish, not of Israel). He was the one reigning at the time Jesus was born ~ the one who sent his soldiers to kill all the Jewish boys in Bethlehem age 2 and under. Does he sound like someone that would need to adhere to the Law of God to you? Well, Herod married his own brother Philip’s wife, Herodias, while Philip yet lived. Let’s now go to Mat 14:3-4 “For Herod had laid hold on John, and bound him, and put him in prison for Herodias' sake, his brother Philip's wife. For John said unto him, It is not lawful for thee to have her.” Sure enough, Herodias’ daughter danced to please Herod who promised her anything, thus according to Herodias’ wishes, had John beheaded. No, I can tell you, the adulterous do not want to be told they are to honor the Law of God or warned that it is by this Law they will be judged on the last day


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

Amen sister what beautiful exultation's of the word. Let there be no doubt that your a wise and gracious teacher. I feel condemned to hell reading your writings. I feel that all I touch are filthy in the eyes of the Lord. I feel judgment must come quickly and swiftly to all who are my adulterous heredity. I must no longer teach. I must no longer preach. I cannot make things right for others do not wish it so. So I beg God forgiveness for all who are like me. All that this modern world has cursed into Baal.

I will no longer speak or write with you for it may cause your impurity.

I am reconciled to death and a full death in hell based upon your wisdom. Perhaps Judas death is right for me. For in your eyes as a learned teacher I am beyond redemption for my ex will not and would not reconcile.

For now I will leave it at that. But there is a 3% factor.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Ericdierker, now I know you're being a bit sarchastic. In your comment prior to the crux of this discussion, you said "After about five years from separation (3 from divorce) God befell on me a horrible terminal sickness. My ex of course came to my side with our children and in the months of crisis my ex returned to God. Repented and through Christian counselling we tried to reconcile. Remarriage was not to be." You NEVER said, "my ex will not and would not reconcile." What kind of salvation is that? Ignorance or a LIE, I would say. Has she remarried? You never answered that question.

If you did all you could do, then it may be said your UNBELIEVING spouse DIVORCED you, in which case all of this discussion has been for naught, for you would therefore qualify under the Pauline Privilege.


teaches12345 profile image

teaches12345 3 years ago

Lots of discussion on this post, Judahs Daughter. I thank you for the scripture references and the challenge presented. God' covenant of marriage is sacred and should not be taken lightly. Blessings.


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Ericdierker 3 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

Of course she divorced me. But that is legalistic, I like to keep it spiritual. But for sure the wonderful discussion is beneficial and helpful to all. JD I truly hope you have helped many here to understand as you have helped me.

Let us never forget, that even a small problem in a marriage is contrary to God's will for us.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

I am thankful that God not only taught me His Word in regard to marriage and divorce, but has also shown me His mercy toward us. God's standards are perfect and holy; the cross fills in the gap when we fall short of His standards. THAT is mercy. THAT is grace. We are not to trample upon it. He is both our Father and Bridegroom (Covenant Spouse) as shown in Jer 3:14 "Turn, O backsliding children, saith the LORD; for I am married unto you:”

The entire Bible is about the Covenant and it's put in a context of MARRIAGE, starting with Adam and Eve and ending with the Wedding Feast of the Lamb. I would say the Covenant of Marriage is indeed sacred and as professed children of God, the Bride of the Bridegroom, we are to reflect the Marriage Covenant of Christ and the Church in all things. This IS the 'great mystery' Paul spoke of in Eph 5.32.

I thought of the curse after the fall of "your husband shall rule over you". In a picture of YHWH and Israel, this is why He became a 'Baali' of Hosea 2:16. When the betrothed Bride REPENTS, He then becomes 'Ishi' (loving Husband). Multitudes of husbands today utilize the 'Baali'-type headship, rather than the Ishi-type headship (which is really being a savior of his body).

Eph 5:23 "For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the HEAD of the church: and he is the SAVIOR of the body."

KEPHALE - head - literally, that part of the body attached to the neck. (Greek) - figuratively, source of being, origin of being. In Genesis 2, man or husband is spoken of as the source or origin of the woman's existence. Paul's point here is that she "comes" from him, NOT that the husband is the wife's boss or commander or ruler. KEPHALE is used in the Greek translation of the Hebrew in Genesis 2.

•militarily, the front-line soldier who is first in line of fire, the shock troop, the one who absorbs assaults and enemy fire.

O, that we come to understand the heart of God and reflect His image, in which we were created. Gen 1:27 "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them."

God bless you, sister. May God bless us all.


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Judah's Daughter 3 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Oh brother Ericdierker, I am so thankful you returned so that our conversation is reconciled unto the glory of the Lamb. I believe what I just posted to sister teaches12345 confirms beautifully what you just stated, praise God!

The LORD desires to wash His Bride by the Word (Eph 5:26)! “My people are destroyed for lack of knowledge” (Hos 4:6) “Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat:” (Mat 7:13). “Thy rod and Thy staff, they COMFORT me” (Ps 23:4), for “For whom the Lord loveth he chasteneth, and scourgeth every son whom he receiveth.” (Heb 12:6). We are no longer illegitimate children (Heb 12:8) but “have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.” (Rom 8:15) HalleluYah!


Deborah Sexton 2 years ago

You probably will not let me post this here but....

You seem to be confused about what fornication is.

Fornication is sexual relations between two people who aren’t married to each other.

The key words are “not married to each other”. It does not mean “ sexual relations between two people who are not married”. In other words this does not mean single people in all instances. It also involves those who are married.

As long as two people who are not married to each other have sexual relations, it is fornication.

Fornication is “illicit sexual relations” and illicit means it is forbidden by law, rules, custom, or by God. The only thing that gives two people that “right” is a marriage between them.

Adultery means sexual relations between a married person and a person who is not his or her spouse., but It also means lusting after someone in the heart/mind.

This is why the word “fornication” instead of “adultery” was used. Divorcing a person because they lusted in their hearts was not allowed. Only the very act between two people was reason for divorce.

In that day the Jewish men were divorcing their wives for the least of reasons so it had to be understood, hence the word “fornication” was used and not Adultery. If it had said adultery the men and women would have divorced their spouses when they lusted after someone, thinking it was Okay


BrendaJames2 2 years ago

I would like to comment on some things, one subject at a time.

1. Why God wanted to be called ishi and no longer baali

Baali is a Hebrew word meaning my husband, my lord and master of the home etc. But the pagans adopted it as a name for their gods (Idols) and used it as master, so the Hebrews have dropped it from their vocabulary. It was a good Hebrew word until the pagans changed it's meaning

The word was replaced with a new word which is "Ishi" and means "My Sweet Husband"

"Thou shalt call me Ishi; or, "my sweet husband" and no more my Lord.(Baali)"


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Hello, Deborah Sexton. I beg to differ that fornication and adultery are the same thing - the only thing they have in common is the sex. The difference is, fornication does not involve a married person; thus, if anyone divorces his wife (betrothed) for any reason other than fornication, he causes her (and the one she marries - gameó) to commit adultery, not fornication.

The only time fornication and adultery are used as one-in-the same sin is during the betrothal phase in Jewish marriage customs. The punishment for non-disclosed fornication being discovered by the betrothed groom was the same as adultery, for they are called husband and wife during their betrothal. They agreed to and signed the marriage contract. Mat 1:19-20 show us this, clearly.

To be a fornicator, prior to betrothal, was not punishable by death. Gomer, for instance, was a Hebrew woman of prostitution (fornication/harlotry), yet she was not obviously, fornicating with married men and was thus, not stoned to death under the Law. Hosea knew she was a prostitute and agreed to marry her, per God's command. The whole account of Hosea and Gomer's marriage was a picture of God with Israel, as His betrothed Bride. This is why Gomer's children were called 'children of whoredom', rather than children of adultery, which their mother literally committed against her husband. God called Gomer an adulteress in Hosea 3:1. Her children were compared to Israel, as children of whoredom. Israel played the whore, as God's betrothed Bride. And, because She is God's betrothed Bride, she is also called an adulterous nation.

We can see that adultery and fornication are differentiated, for they are listed separately in Mat 15:19 "For from the heart proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, murders, fornications, thefts, lying testimonies, blasphemies.”

The 10 Words, 7th Commandment states, "Thou shalt not commit adultery", which goes right along with the 10th "You shall not covet your neighbor’s wife." So, in line with this, when Jesus was speaking specifically of the 7th Commandment in Mat 5:27-18, He was specifically addressing this coveting in the heart by a married or unmarried man desiring his neighbor's wife (gune), the same word used in Mat 5:32 for 'wife' and in Mat 1:20 for Mary, Joseph's betrothed 'wife'.


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Agreed, BrendaJames2. Thank you and God bless you!


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Ericdierker 2 years ago from Spring Valley, CA. U.S.A.

Deborah

I just do not get how a modern woman runs off old testament stuff. You are precluded in the old to testify or offer preaching outside your home.

How do you preach the old but ignore that you may not preach it?

Believe me I am a New kind of guy and accept a woman as worthy to testify and preach. But when she preaches the old I am just astounded for she must know that in the old she cannot publicly preach the word.

How do you do that? How can a woman openly preach that which comes from the Old Testament that strictly forbids her from testimony and preaching.


Deborah Sexton 2 years ago

Ericdierker

I’ve seen in a few places where you claimed to be a pastor. I thought “well maybe he is”

But then you wanted a list of reasons a person can divorce and I knew you weren’t Bible lierate since there is no list. God doesn’t allow it. It was Moses who allowed it for fornication.

Now you are saying the Old Testament doesn’t allow women to be ministers or anything really. Now I know you are not a pastor.

It is the New Testament (mainly Paul) who says for a woman to be silent.

Nowhere in the OT does it not allow a woman, and God used them as prophets, and leaders.

You need to study and find God, you are looking quite silly.

There are 194 contradictions known to me in the NT and I don't believe in it


Deborah Sexton 2 years ago

Judah you are wrong, and not just about the meaning of fornication but many of the things in the Bible. You post Greek and Hebrew words giving incorrect definitions, stating it as though it is a fact. You even tell people who speak the languages fluently that they are wrong. You are teaching for doctrines the commandments and beliefs of men. That is taking from and adding to God's word


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

I can say I am not aware of women not being able to be ministers in the Torah. Even in the New Testament, women were used mightily of God. The command for 'women' to be silent in the congregation was specifically speaking to wives, that they not ask their husbands questions in the assembly, but wait until they got home and ask their own husbands there. I have written on this study here: http://hubpages.com/religion-philosophy/Your-Daugh...

And Deborah, it was Jesus, not Moses, who gave the only reason for divorcing a betrothed woman - that being fornication. It was a male's right to marry a virgin. A virgin's mohar (bride price) was higher than a non-virgin or a widow. In Mat 5:31 the Jews were referencing Deut 24:1-4, which basically was interpreted to mean a man could fully marry a woman and divorce her for any reason (simply hating her, or finding some 'uncleanness' in her) - that wording leaves room for all kinds of misinterpretation, so Jesus set them straight in Mat 5:32.


Deborah Sexton 2 years ago

What do you think the uncleanness meant. Moses allowed for fornication. We Jewish people also have the Oral Torah which Gentiles do not have access to. But when you think you are right that's it. A child of God is open

" that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her"


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

The words translated in English as 'some uncleanness' is erwat debar. Since we know the 10 Words were called the 10 Debarim, we have a reference to what debar means and it doesn't mean 'some'. Erwat debar is used in only one other passage in the Old Testament, referring to feces defiling the land (Deut 23:14). We can see it literally defined as nakedness (erwat) of a Word (debar), thus a violation of a command.

It would make sense that one of the 10 Words has to do with nakedness, namely Adultery. We could assume this is what is being referenced as “erwat debar”; however, the penalty for adultery was death (thus, why David needed Uriah to die, in order to claim Uriah's wife without breaking the Law and avoid the death penalty for both of them.)

I looked up erwat to see all the scriptures where the word is used. Besides defilement of land, most of the time it has to do with sexual relations with near kin or a family member (incest) - thus, it would make sense that the couple could lawfully be divorced for this reason, and if remarried/divorced again, was not to return to the original spouse (as it would still be erwat/incestuous):http://biblehub.com/hebrew/ervat_6172.htm

We know that an adulterous spouse certainly can repent and return to his/her spouse. Gomer, though she committed adultery and even returned to prostitution was reconciled with her husband, Hosea, according to the will of God. I will add this --- let's say a person divorced his wife for another reason besides fornication (betrothal harlotry) and she married another, who didn't know that marrying her caused both of them to be guilty of adultery. Once he comes to the knowledge of the Truth, he divorces her because it is an adulterous marriage. This is a lawful divorce of repentance.


Norine Williams 2 years ago

JD: Define marriage? How did God establish "marriage" in Genesis? Were Adam and Eve not pure, holy and "only in the Lord?" Did not God join them together? Was any of this taken into consideration before posts? Now if "married" as God intended, then biblical verses apply! Did He not say in I Cor 7:39 "...only in the Lord?" If second one should be, should not the first one be?

Has anyone considered I Cor 7:20 and 24? We were "DEAD" in our trespasses and sins before we were "in Christ?" Come on now! The "letter killeth!" Did God not say in Hosea "I am not your husband and you are not my wife" when she was playing the harlot?

Marriage is a mystery! Eph 5:36 says, "This is a great mystery, but I speak concerning Christ and the church." Christ (Holy) the church (Holy)! HOLY is what a marriage should be and "joined together by God!" Whose to say that God has not joined a second marriage or third marriage together? (Using the term legalistically!) Just because you have a piece of paper does not constitute "a marriage" in the sight of God! Never forget, "...what God has joined together, let not man put assunder!"

I Cor 7:29 says, "But this I say, brethren, The time is short; it remaineth that both they that have wives be as though they had none."

One day, hopefully soon, we will all learn to "walk in the Spirit" and "study the Word of God in the Spirit!"


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Precisely, Norine! Again, I would like to remind readers that when God is saying to Israel, "I am not your husband and you are not my wife" when she was playing the harlot", Israel is His 'betrothed', not in a consummated marriage. The Wedding Feast has not yet happened for any of us. Once Hosea married Gomer (symbolic of Israel), adultery was NOT grounds for divorce. God's faithfulness, grace and mercy is ever solid when we are in Covenant with Him.

How many young people, who are not serious/mature in their walk with the LORD, marry for other reasons than strongly considering whether it is God's will? The MDA (Marriage-Divorce-Adultery) or MDR (Marriage-Divorce-Remarriage) cults will say, no matter what, even if you were a Muslim who married a Muslim under their Law, then obtained a Muslim divorce (allowed), accepted Christ Jesus as Savior and remarried a Christian husband, you MUST divorce your Christian husband and return to your Muslim husband, else you are in a non-repentant, adulterous marriage! That's the letter that KILLS = the doctrine of DEMONS.

I thank God you have understanding and thank you so much for your comment. Blessings to you!


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Norine, I received your 'fan mail' question and would like to say that Jesus was crucified on Passover, which is also called 'Preparation Day' (remember, the following day was a 'high Sabbath' or the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread). Unleavened bread was eaten during the seven-day Feast, while not so on 'Preparation Day' (Passover), when leaven was being removed from homes. The 'last supper' was the evening of 'Preparation Day' (evening to evening constituted a Jewish 'day'). The word used for the breaking of the 'bread' Jesus served is not azumos (unleavened bread), but artos (leavened bread). Shock!! The official Passover meal is the evening of the 'first day' of the Feast of Unleavened bread, or 'high Sabbath'. Jesus was in the tomb when this meal was eaten.

Here's an article that will outline this biblically for you and all readers: https://biblebased.wordpress.com/2008/03/05/must-w...

Note that 'yeast' not only represented 'sin' (kingdom of Satan) in the Bible (Mat 16:6), but also represented 'the kingdom of God' (Mat 13:33). Likewise, when Jesus turned water into wine at the wedding feast, it was NOT grape juice, but fermented wine (oinon/oinos is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew yayin). Unfermented grape juice, on the other hand is called gleukos in Acts 2:13, with the Hebrew equivalent tirosh.


Norine Williams 2 years ago

Judah's Daugther: We are "consummated" in Christ when we put Him on! Jesus is our husband! We must stop looking at all things from a carnal standpoint and look at all things in the Spirit when we are reading the Scriptures. Marriage is a mystery! We must be holy, pure and "only in the Lord to be "really married" as God intended in Genesis. Otherwise, everyone is just going and getting a "license to sin." Now when you put on Christ, I Cor 7 tells us to "...remain in the place of your calling." Did Paul not say that? Your "ex-spouse" is "DEAD" if not in Christ or he wouldn't be your "ex!" He must have done something that was unChrist-like! That's why I Cor 7:39 says, "...only in the Lord." Which the first one should have been or he wouldn't be your "ex."

Now concerning "What's in the cup" or "The Communion." Water and only water should be given for the Communion according to Scripture. Because Jesus said "in my blood" "which was SHED!" When the soldier pierced His Side "forthwith came there out BLOOD AND WATER!" "WATER" was shed! No one pays attention to "every Word that proceedeth out of the Mouth of God!"

However, thank God baptism has been revealed to you! For that, I am grateful! Keep searching the Scriptures girl! God has a plan for you!


Norine Williams 2 years ago

JD: I still say "What God has joined together, let no man put asunder." Who can say "what God has joined together?" It would be like telling someone "you don't have the Holy Spirit!" It would be like trying to look into a person's heart! That's why Scripture says when you come into the knowledge of Christ, "remain where you are." (I Cor 7:20) That's why Scripture reads the way it does in I Cor 7:17-24!

Oh yes, Isaiah 54:5 tells us that Jesus is our husband!

Much love! I want ALL to come into the TRUTH in His Word! By the way, I am 'a fan' of yours because you are truly seeking TRUTH in His Word!


Norine Williams 2 years ago

JD: In one of your writings you said, "And P.S. In my first comment response to you above, I stated that Gomer (Hosea's wife) was a foreign wife. I assumed so because of the nation of Gomer and her father's 'foreign' name; however, I've come to find out she was a Hebrewess. So, Hosea did not marry a foreign wife, of which God forbade Israel to do ~ in that case, Israel divorcing their foreign wives did not constitute "what God had joined together", nor did it make them adulterers for re-marriage to Israeli wives!!"

You, by your own admission, said that "God does not allow us to marry "foreign wives!" I see it also in the Book of Ezra! Therefore, would one not say that a sinner or two sinners are "foreign" in God's eyesight and therefore not truly married? Again, how can God join two people together who are "DEAD" in their trespasses and sins? He doesn't! Because they are "foreign" or sinners who are "DEAD" in His eyesight!

Please allow me to us your statement: "God bless us as we press on with balance of Truth and the compassion of our God." (JD)

Love you JD: Keep Pressing!


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Praise God, Norine - I would love for you to write a hub on why water should be the liquid representing the blood Jesus shed for us. I do see the Holy Spirit aligned with Water all throughout Scripture (Living Water of baptism, flowing from within to overflow, etc.)

I haven't gone up to read my previous comment about foreign wives, but we do know that Ruth was a foreigner, converted to Judaism, thus married Boaz, a marriage joined by God. You are right on, that 'foreign' has a Spiritual meaning! Foreign gods, foreign gods, foreign gods -- sons and daughters of Baal and all associated with any false god, for there is no other god besides THE GOD of Creation! The Great "I AM"!

Love you so much and thank you for BLESSING me. Jesus reigns!!


Norine Williams 2 years ago

JD: The Spirit just led me to a Scripture regarding taking "unleavened" bread for the Communion! I Cor 5:6-8! What say thee? Especially verse 8 which says, "Therefore, let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, either with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the "unleavened" bread of sincerity and truth." What say thee? I must agree to disagree concerning "wine" as to be taken for the Communion. The Scriptures say what was in the cup was "shed" (Matt 26:28 & Luke 22:20) and the soldier did pierce His side and immediately came there out blood and "water" (John 19:34).

Also, how can a Bishop or deacon be given wine for the Communion according to I Tim. 3:3; Titus 1:7?


Norine Williams 2 years ago

JD: Love you so much too Girl! I love anyone who is earnestly seeking TRUTH in His Word! Now concerning Ruth as being a foreigner. She converted and became "in Christ!" Boaz was already a believer; therefore, yes, this was a marriage "joined together by God!"

It's really sad to say, but I would suspect that half of the marriages in the US have not been "joined together by God!" That's why the divorce rate is so high! The churches (and definitely not law officials) are not counseling individuals properly prior to marriage. Do they even ask if they've been married before? Do they ask if they "truly" know the Lord? I Cor 7:39 tells a widow to marry "...only in the Lord" but are people being told this? When I saw this Scripture, wow, the Holy Spirit asked me, "Well, if the 2nd marriage is to be "only in the Lord" should not the 1st one be? Then I begin to look starting with Genesis when a "true marriage" was established by God. I saw that both Adam and Eve had not sinned, that they were pure, holy, in the likeness of God. Need I say more? In the Old Testament the Israelite girls were presented in marriage as virgins! A virginity clothe was presented after consummation to show proof of virginity. If she was not a virgin, she was stoned to death as stated in Deuteronomy 22: 13-21. That's how "serious" a true marriage is to God!

Girl listen - Concerning writing a Hub - I am new to this website and have little knowledge on how to write a Hub. However, I am writing a book and was cruising the internet when I ran across your Hub regarding baptism. I said to myself, this is a woman "truly seeking" the Word of God. When I read further, I knew that God was working with you and It was no one but Jesus that had revealed baptism to you! Then when you mentioned I John 5:7-8 (which I mentioned in my book that research needs to be done on that particular Scripture), your writings regarding that Scripture confirmed what the Spirit had already told me! That's when I feel in love with you!

Sincerely, Norine


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

1 Cor 5:6-8 is speaking of a 'feast' or 'festival' and 'without leaven', so no doubt symbolic of the "Feast of Unleavened Bread". The last supper was not on the first day (evening) of the 'high Sabbath' of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Jesus was the Passover Lamb, indicating we are to eat of His flesh and drink of His blood to show His death until He comes again. In this sense, the bread would be unleavened (unlike the last supper) and the blood would associate with unleavened wine (or new grape juice). Yes, water and blood came from His side when He was pierced; unleavened bread is made with flour and water, while the wine represents His blood. Water is not blood and blood is not water. Jesus turned water into wine as His first miracle. As far as 1 Cor 5:6-8 is concerned, the 'feast' is symbolic of our Christian life in Christ, and the 'unleavened' term is referring to our life apart from sin, not taking of literal unleavened bread.


Judah's Daughter profile image

Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

I am so thankful you know God and He knows you. You KNOW these things (especially regarding baptism and the Johannine Comma) were truly revealed to me by God. I pray you will continue to read because there are so many things God had led me to know and write about, all to His glory -- even in confirming to other Spirit-led believers, that it is truly Him teaching them in all these things (quite different than what the churches of man are teaching). You would be a great hubber! I would LOVE to read your book! Email me anytime at judahsdaughter@gmail.com!

In reference to the stoning of a woman not found to be a virgin upon consummation, the groom had two options, which we see Joseph considered while betrothed to Mary, found to be with child not by Joseph. Mat 1:19-20 tell us he decided not to 'make her a publik example' (KJV) - this means he could have had her stoned at the door of her father's house for adultery - but that he decided to quietly 'put her away' (divorce her). However, we know the Angel told him not to be afraid to take Mary as his wife, for she was carrying the Son of God.

If a woman had been deceptive during the betrothal and the husband had to find out upon consummation, he would be outraged and in most cases, that woman would have been stoned. The fact of the matter is, however, weddings were often held the evening before the courts were open, so divorces could be granted immediately after the consummation, if the bride was found not be a virgin. The groom COULD decide to keep her, too. He didn't have to end the marriage. The groom had the right to a virgin, but as we can see with Hosea and Gomer, virginity was not a holy requirement for marriages joined by God. Likewise, widows (as well as legally divorced women) were not virgins, yet were able to remarry.

Blessings to you, dear sister! I thank God for you.


Norine Williams 2 years ago

JD: Woman of God!!! I agree " Likewise, widows (as well as legally divorced women) were not virgins, yet were able to remarry" (JD). Yet, as is today, However, "...only in the Lord."

My God, My God, My God! I will be sending you the chapter from my book on marriage via email. Thank you very much for supplying that info!

JD, I admire your thirst for "truth" in His Word. God has revealed to me most of the same things He has revealed to you in Scripture! When I read your responses, e.g. on baptism, Jesus IS God, and I will be reading others, It could be nothing "BUT JESUS!" Not to argue, but to come to where Jesus wants us to be - "On One Accord" through the revelation of His Holy Word by the Holy Spirit!

Look for my email! Love you JD: Keep Pressing!


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Judah's Daughter 2 years ago from Roseville, CA Author

Yes, and amen "Yet, as is today, However, "...only in the Lord." HalleluYah.

And I praise Him that you also know that Jesus is God! Amen!! We confess that Jesus Christ is LORD "YHWH = I AM", our God and Savior! Only the Spirit of God can reveal this to His children. So many have not yet received the Truth. The Spirit of Truth guides us into all Truth! Amen!!

Two witnesses establish a truth, and here we have TWO, your spirit bearing witness with my spirit because of His Spirit. You didn't know me, nor I you - but, the Spirit unites us in Truth. He IS the Truth!

I will look for your email, sister in Christ. God bless you, even as you have blessed me.


Norine Williams 2 years ago

CONFIRMATION - THANK YOU JESUS! What can I say but THANK YOU JESUS! ALL PRAISES TO THE GREAT "I AM!"

Love you JD: Let us continue to "Press On" in His Word!


Norine Williams 5 months ago

Judah, I'm giving ALL PRAISES TO GOD for NEW REVELATION! Thank you Jesus!

Study these Things He has "revealed:"

(1) Moses was the Messenger ('vessel') who delivered the Message of LAW under the Old Covenant; whereas Paul was the Messenger ("vessel") who delivered the Message of GRACE under the New Covenant! Amen!

and

(2) There is no "Communion" according to Hebrews 7,8, and 9 "CHRIST HAS DONE IT ALL!" He is the "bread" and He is the "drink!" When we "commune" with GOD, it is in spirit and in truth (worshiping)! I Corinthians 11:20-21 "When ye come together therefore into one place, this is not to eat the Lord's supper. For in eating every one taketh before other his own supper: and one is hungry, and another is drunken." Amen!

Study these Things as we "Press" higher and higher "toward the prize!"

Blessings

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