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If John wrote after AD 90, why did he not mention the destruction of the temple in AD 70?

If John wrote after AD 90 as many Bible commentators claim, why did he never mention the fulfilment of Jesus’ prophecy about the destruction of the temple, Jerusalem, and the dispersion of the Jews in AD 70?

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Jerry Lynn Hayes Sr (Bishop J L Hayes) says

2 years ago
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    Alexander Gibb (searchinsany) 2 years ago


    I didn’t mention The Book of Revelation in my question. My point is that all John’s writings are after AD 90 according to most commentators. If so why did he not mention the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem in AD 70.

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Alexander Gibb (searchinsany) says

2 years ago
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    Rod Martin Jr (lone77star) 2 years ago

    Nowhere on your page did you mention Moses parting the sea. Why? Could it be because it was not relevant? There were millions of things John of Patmos did not mention in Revelation. That lack does nothing to date his writings.