It is a popular belief in heavily funded Academic institutions that there is no such thing as free will. Yet in the same society there are law courts which evidently have to belive in free will otherwise there is little point them existing. How does it make sense to have these two things in the same society? Is there not a danger that criminals might be influenced into beliving they have no free will and therefore are not responsible for their actions?
What does the word just mean? It means not too much, about right.
At best you can only justify keeping one of these practices going.
"It is a popular belief in heavily funded Academic institutions that there is no such thing as free will."
The opening sentence sounds more like a personal opinion than a rational conclusion supported by factual research. Do you have data from a study that actually measure how “popular” these beliefs are, or that identify these institutions, or further, that document they are “heavily funded?”
It is essential to establish that the stated premise is true and not imaginary before proceeding.
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