If John wrote after AD 90 as many Bible commentators claim, why did he never mention the fulfilment of Jesus’ prophecy about the destruction of the temple, Jerusalem, and the dispersion of the Jews in AD 70?
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I didn’t mention The Book of Revelation in my question. My point is that all John’s writings are after AD 90 according to most commentators. If so why did he not mention the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem in AD 70.
Nowhere on your page did you mention Moses parting the sea. Why? Could it be because it was not relevant? There were millions of things John of Patmos did not mention in Revelation. That lack does nothing to date his writings.