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jlpark profile image 85

Why is context relevant to some verses of the Bible and not others?


For some reason, my previous question was deleted by HP - I apologise if I caused offense - I'm actually curious (and would actually like to write a hub...). Here goes: It was suggested to me that the Biblical verses condoning slavery make sense when considered in their historical context - that it was bartering, not the 'slavery' we consider today. However, I'm curious as to why it applies to these verses, but it often gets over looked in relation to those verses pulled out to support anti-gay sentiment as well as other things. Is it because slavery is now frowned upon or something else?

 

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creativearts2009 profile image83

Cecelia (creativearts2009) says

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2 years ago
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    Jacqui (jlpark) 2 years ago

    Thats what I was getting at - it seems better in context, rather than modern view of slavery. The anti-gay verses make sense in the context of their time of writing - that no longer exists now, but are often used out of context. I was jst wondering y


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Lawrence Hebb (lawrence01) says

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2 years ago
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    Jacqui (jlpark) 2 years ago

    Thanks for your answer, and your comment on Norine's - It's the point I'm trying to make - people always take the verses out of context, so they fit the use they are giving them, but don't like it if it's done back. Thanks for understanding that!


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Norine Williams says

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2 years ago
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    Jacqui (jlpark) 2 years ago

    Context, Norine. Not just scriptural context, but social, historical and cultural context. Sure, you could use "new covenant" for everything - but it doesn't replace the other contexts that existed at the time of writing that no longer apply.


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