How is it clear? Can you show me where in Genesis chapters 13, 14, 18, and 19, it mentions that God destroyed Sodom because of homosexuality? Does the Bible talk about the sodomy in sodom and gamorrah in some other chapter? What am I missing here? Have you ever actually read the story about Sodom?
Final question, have you ever eaten shellfish? If so then you have sinned to the same degree as a homosexual as the word for 'abomination' in Hebrew, exact same word, is used for both.
Here is chapter 18 of Genesis where Abraham argues for God to spare the cities, looks like you could use a read, check out chapter 19 too when the cities are actually destroyed, and 13/14 give background on the King of Sodom when Abraham helped him in a war:
As a Jew I find your interpretation of my scripture to be horrifying. How can some people take everything literally and then not even consider the literature in front of them? The scripture is a living text meant to guide, not impose your morality on others by making up what scripture actually says.
Chapter 19 can easily and probably be more accurately interpreted that the Sodom men wanted to sell Lot's guests into slavery, he mentions that his daughters have not known a man because virginity would increase their product value as slaves. In 19:5 the word for 'we may know them' (hebrew fonts broken, the word is vav-nun-daled-ayin-hey, you can clearly see it as the second to last word in Gen 19:5 in the link)is not 'know' as in sex, read Jeremiah and Isaiah who use the same word "so that we may know God", are you claiming that it is clear Isaiah and Jeremiah wanted to have sex with God?
When a claim is made that something in scripture is 'clear' first off it is bogus because nothing in scripture is clear, second off I would expect some reference to scripture, rather than conjecture based on something people say, people who probably never read it at all.