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Did gun bans in Germany after WWI lead to the Holocaust?
After WW I most of Germany's weapons were taken away by the Allies.
No, with Hitler in charge, the Holocaust was going to happen either way. He got the idea of concentrating and exterminating "undesirables" from how Americans concentrated and exterminated Indians during the 19th Century.
Guns were available during Hitler's rule and even if the Jews were armed, there instances of armed Jewish revolts, but they didn't stand a chance against the German Army.
Did standing armies in countries such as France prevent Hitler from taking over most of Europe?
And while not even remotely on the same level, did widespread gun ownership do anything to prevent our own internment of over one hundred thousand Japanese Americans?
A long history of hate and violence toward Hebrews, scape-goating, and a tyrannical psychopath led to the Holocaust. More access to guns would have just slightly slowed it down.
There were pockets of armed Jews who relied more on guerrilla warfare. However, there were not enough to prevent the atrocities since they were too few in numbers. Gun bans were part of the issue but it is not the ultimate cause. There were other issues that led up to it too. Hitler turned Jews into a major scapegoat for WW1 to the point were regular German citizens turned on their Jewish neighbors.
The Native Americans had weapons too and quite few tribes had modern firearms and were not banned from having them. However, like Paul said, millions of Native Americans died. They were out numbered and in some cases, out gunned.
No; I can't make that connection. Would guns have somehow prevented the holocaust?
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