The Trinity As We Were Taught, Really Exists

The Trinity - El Greco

The Trinity as taught by early Catholicism, is still taught today.
The Trinity as taught by early Catholicism, is still taught today.

To answer the question by True Truthseeker: Why those who love truth will never believe in the fallacy of the Trinity?

Fallacy of the Trinity? Why are you saying that it is a fallacy? Are you referring to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost? Actually, they very much exist! When one speaks about the Father, it is in reference to the God energy, the all-pervading energy of the universe that we are a part of, that exists inside of every living being, and not only every living being, but inside of everything, every physical thing as well. It is a part of everything, just like the ocean is a part of every living thing inside of it. The fish swim in it, they breathe it in, they breathe it out...The Earth is a part of it, all the planets are part of it, and beyond...the space between the planets are part of it....God the Father is not an old man in a throne floating in mid-air. That is the image we were given but it was just an easy way to try to explain it to the populace; also an image created by a populace with little understanding. You see, the TRUTH is that we are swimming INSIDE of GOD. Not only that, but GOD is swimming inside of us. Ha ha. Yes, that is a funny way to explain it but it is the truth. In that same way we are all CONNECTED. That active connection, of us all being in the same POOL with GOD, AND FEELING IT, can be called the HOLY GHOST...it is the ACTIVE connecting energy that is the HOLY GHOST. For example, when you know that it is your sister when the phone rings, that is the active connecting energy that let you know that it was your sister. That is the Holy Ghost...Now-a-day it is called a " psychic connection." It is the same thing. You are perceiving the connectivity that we all have...because we are definitely all connected. You can perceive it more with others who are more compatible with you, but it is there for everyone to experience. Now let's talk about THE SON. The son of GOD is in reference to Jesus. But also, we are all sons and daughters of GOD as well. And our destiny is to grow and to learn about love until we can learn to love the whole of GOD as HE/SHE would like for us to do. HE/SHE would like for us to love every part of HIM/HER (everything in creation) GOD loves us all because we are all HIS/HER CREATION, and one day, we will learn to be perfect just like Jesus was. One might never understand the workings of GOD because there is no formula to describe HIM/SHE fully. One cannot put a box around GOD, because GOD will not be limited in any aspect, and we, with our tiny minds, cannot comprehend GOD. That is why HE/SHE wants us to function from our HEARTS rather than from our limited heads, because the HEART understands LOVE, whereas the HEAD only understands logic. Love is greater than logic. That is why Jesus is always depicted in pictures and statuettes with a "burning heart," because he functioned from his heart, with a burning love for GOD, because, to see GOD in every living being, made his heart burn with love. I hope this clarified things for you a bit. This is how I see it. Others might have a slightly different view.

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Comments 9 comments

HOOWANTSTONO profile image

HOOWANTSTONO 6 years ago

Hi there, I like the way you described the Trinity

God already considers those in Christ perfect because Christ is perfect. God calls us "New Creatures"

Yes Trinity or Triune still FSH

Two verses where all three are mentioned by Jesus

Jhn 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

Jhn 15:26 But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, [even] the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:

1Jo 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Go well


Apostle Jack profile image

Apostle Jack 6 years ago from Atlanta Ga

The way it is explained have a lot to do with it.When you only know bits and pieces you can only explain a little bit.


True Truthseeker profile image

True Truthseeker 6 years ago

Firstly, no art depicting the Christ, is correct.

Second, God is ONE [Deu 6:4; James 2:19; 1 Cor 8:3- 6.

Third, Christ was SENT by His God and Father. John 6:38; John 8:42; John 20:17.

Fourth, Christ was RESURRECTED by His God and Father. Acts 5:30; 1 Peter 1:3; 1 Peter 3:18; 1 Cor 15:45.

Fifth, Christ took the scroll from God's hand. Re 5:7

Sixth, Jesus prayed and beseeched His God and Father. Matthew 27:46

Seventh. Christ will subject Himself, to His God and Father. 1 Corinthians 15:28, 29. Re 3:12


Errol Kane 5 years ago

With respect, you can't cancel out anything Jesus said to justify the trinity. What he said was not said with confusion so as not to understand his simple words.

What did Jesus say?

“If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.” (John 14:28) Jesus acknowledged that he and his Father are not equals.

“I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak.” (John 12:49) Jesus’ teachings did not come from him; they came from the Father.

JESUS claimed to be the Son of God, not Almighty God. If Jesus were God, to whom was he praying while here on earth? (Matthew 14:23; 26:26-29) Surely Jesus was not just pretending to talk to someone else!

When two of Jesus’ disciples asked him for special positions in his Kingdom, he answered: “This sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.” (Matthew 20:23) Was Jesus telling them a lie when he stated that he did not have the authority to grant their request? Hardly! Rather, he humbly acknowledged that only God has the authority to make such decisions. Jesus even explained that there were some things that neither he nor the angels knew but that were known only by his Father.—Mark 13:32.

Was Jesus lower than God only while he was a man here on earth? No. Even after his death and resurrection, Jesus is described in the Bible as being subordinate to God. The apostle Paul reminds us that “God is supreme over Christ.” (1 Corinthians 11:3, Today’s English Version) The Bible says that in the future “when all things have been placed under Christ’s rule, then he himself, the Son, will place himself under God, who placed all things under him; and God will rule completely over all.”—1 Corinthians 15:28, TEV.

Clearly, Jesus is not God Almighty. That is why he spoke of his Father as “my God.”—Revelation 3:2, 12; 2 Corinthians 1:3, 4.

PEOPLE who believe the Trinity teaching say that God consists of three persons—the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Each of these three persons is said to be equal to the others, almighty, and without beginning. According to the Trinity doctrine, therefore, the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, yet there is only one God.

Many who believe the Trinity admit that they are not able to explain this teaching. Still, they may feel that it is taught in the Bible. It is worth noting that the word “Trinity” never occurs in the Bible. But is the idea of a Trinity found there? To answer this question, let's look at a scripture that supporters often cite to uphold the Trinity.

THE WORD WAS GOD”

John 1:1 states: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (King James Version) Later in the same chapter, the apostle John clearly shows that “the Word” is Jesus. (John 1:14) Since the Word is called God, however, some conclude that the Son and the Father must be part of the same God.

Bear in mind that this part of the Bible was originally written in Greek. Later, translators rendered the Greek text into other languages. A number of Bible translators, though, did not use the phrase “the Word was God.” Why not? Based on their knowledge of Biblical Greek, those translators concluded that the phrase “the Word was God” should be translated differently. How? Here are a few examples: “The Logos [Word] was divine.” (A New Translation of the Bible) “The Word was a god.” (The New Testament in an Improved Version) “The Word was with God and shared his nature.” (The Translator’s New Testament) According to these translations, the Word is not God himself.* Instead, because of his high position among Jehovah’s creatures, the Word is referred to as “a god.” Here the term “god” means “mighty one.”

GET MORE FACTS

Most people do not know Biblical Greek. So how can you know what the apostle John really meant? Think of this example: A schoolteacher explains a subject to his students. Afterward, the students differ on how to understand the explanation. How can the students resolve the matter? They could ask the teacher for more information. No doubt, learning additional facts would help them to understand the subject better. Similarly, to grasp the meaning of John 1:1, you can look in the Gospel of John for more information on Jesus’ position. Learning additional facts on this subject will help you to draw the right conclusion.

For instance, consider what John further writes in chapter 1, verse 18: “No man has seen [Almighty] God at any time.” However, humans have seen Jesus, the Son, for John says: “The Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory.” (John 1:14, KJ) How, then, could the Son be part of Almighty God? John also states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an individual be with someone and at the same time be that person? Moreover, as recorded at John 17:3, Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly Father. He calls his Father “the only true God.” And toward the end of his Gospel, John sums up matters by saying: “These have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” (John 20:31) Notice that Jesus is called, not God, but the Son of God. This additional information provided in the Gospel of John shows how John 1:1 should be understood. Jesus, the Word, is “a god” in the sense that he has a high position but is not the same as Almighty God.

CONFIRM THE FACTS

Think again about the example of the schoolteacher and the students. Imagine that some still have doubts, even after listening to the teacher’s additional explanation. What could they do? They could turn to another teacher for further information on the same subject. If the second teacher confirms the explanation of the first one, the doubts of most students may be put to rest. Similarly, if you are not sure what the Bible writer John was really saying about the relationship between Jesus and Almighty God, you could turn to another Bible writer for further information. Consider what was written by Matthew, for example. Regarding the end of this system of things, he quotes Jesus as saying: “Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father.” (Matthew 24:36) How do these words confirm that Jesus is not Almighty God?

Jesus says that the Father knows more than the Son does. If Jesus were part of Almighty God, however, he would know the same facts as his Father. So, then, the Son and the Father cannot be equal. Yet, some will say: ‘Jesus had two natures. Here he speaks as a man.’ But even if that were so, what about the holy spirit? If it is part of the same God as the Father, why does Jesus not say that it knows what the Father knows?

If you were to continue studying the Bible, gaining accurate knowledge, you will become familiar with many more Bible passages that have a bearing on this subject. They confirm the truth about the Father, the Son, and the holy spirit.—Psalm 90:2; Acts 7:55; Colossians 1:15.


Errol Kane 5 years ago

I neglected to conclude with 2 Peter 3: 7,But by the same word the heavens and the earth that are now are stored up for fire and are being reserved to the day of judgment and of destruction of the ungodly men.

10 Yet Jehovah’s day will come as a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a hissing noise, but the elements being intensely hot will be dissolved, and earth and the works in it will be discovered.

12 awaiting and keeping close in mind the presence of the day of Jehovah, through which [the] heavens being on fire will be dissolved and [the] elements being intensely hot will melt!

Another scriputre out of so very, very many that blow the trinity doctrine apart is the world being destroy by fire, which is not true because when you look down further in 2 Peter 3: 7, clearly it is speaking of ungodly men and not the world (earth).

Also, do we have our thinking caps on? What does fire, which is physical, have to do with heaven? How can fire destroy anything in the spiritual realm? That is totally impossible. Besides, why destroy the heavens anyway if that is what the trinity teach? What's wrong with the heavens? Nothing! So, would it be reasonable to assume that the heavens are actually worldly governments on earth that put themselves on high? Yes, that is, if you are a reasonable or meek person.


Abbasangel profile image

Abbasangel 5 years ago from Australia - The land down under

Errol Kane, that verse John 1:14 -- Proves God and Jesus are one. You have to read the whole chapter in context with itself as in John 14 Jesus states the Father and he are the same but you stopped - Quoting only Jonh 14:28

Sorry to Hijack your beautiful hub!! :) Its fantastic!! :)

I love how you have shown the functions of the Godhead.


Errol Kane 5 years ago

Apparently Abbasangel, and I say this with respect, you don't know the history of John 1:1. Of course it would prove 'IT' as you say by leaving out a single 'a' which would change the whole meaning. Do you know what it is I am speaking of and are you familiar with certain greek? Have you done the research? It's the same as doing the research to Jesus to prove that Jesus did not die on a cross. That is a fact. It's time to start widening out with the truth. Remember, that is what should be important here.

There is confusion with what Jesus himself had to say about his Father and himself because of John 1:1,

And you can't cancel out any of the things that Jesus said about himself and his Father. What should be done is the individuals should be questioning the things that contradict and really don't make sense because no reasonable person with thinking abilities would accept something so confusing as the trinity, which is a 4th century invention.

JESUS often prayed to God, whom he called Father, and he also taught others to do so. (Matt.6: 9-11; Luke 11: 1,2) In prayer with his apostles—only hours before his death—Jesus petitioned: “Father, the hour has come; glorify your son, that your son may glorify you. This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.”— John 17: 1,3

Notice that Jesus prays to One whom he calls “the only true God.” He points to God’s superior position when he continues: “So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was.” John 17:5 Since Jesus prayed to God requesting to be alongside God, how could Jesus at the same time be “the only true God”?

“If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.” (John 14:28) Jesus acknowledged that he and his Father are not equals.

“I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.” (John 20:17) Jesus did not speak of himself as God but spoke of God as a separate Person.

Yes, don't cancel out any of these saysing an so much more that was said to prove the trinity. Keep these things in mind and use your common sense. I asked also, how is fire going to destroy the heavens when the heavens is spiritual and also, why destroy the heavens when there is nothing wrong with the heavens? With respect, you can't answer that question and you know something, neither would Lt. Colombo. And you know why? It Makes no sense.

But here is something that does make sense when you know the truth and that's what should be important, the truth. The reason for all the confusion of John 1:1.

1808 “and the word was a god” The New Testament, in An

Improved Version, Upon the

Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s

New Translation: With a

Corrected Text, London.

1864 “and a god was the Word” The Emphatic Diaglott (J21,

interlinear reading), by

Benjamin Wilson, New York and

London.

1935 “and the Word was divine” The Bible—An American

Translation, by J. M. P.

Smith and E. J. Goodspeed,

Chicago.

1950 “and the Word was a god” New World Translation of the

Christian Greek Scriptures,

Brooklyn.

1975 “and a god (or, of a divine Das Evangelium nach

kind) was the Word” Johannes, by Siegfried

Schulz,Göttingen, Germany.

1978 “and godlike sort was Das Evangelium nach

the Logos” Johannes,by Johannes

Schneider,Berlin.

1979 “and a god was the Logos” Das Evangelium nach

Johannes,by Jürgen Becker,

Würzburg, Germany.

These translations use such words as “a god,” “divine” or “godlike” because the Greek word ???? (the os?) is a singular predicate noun occurring before the verb and is not preceded by the definite article. This is an anarthrous the os?. The God with whom the Word, or Logos, was originally is designated here by the Greek expression ? ????, that is, the os? preceded by the definite article ho. This is an articular the os?. Careful translators recognize that the articular construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb points to a quality about someone. Therefore, John’s statement that the Word or Logos was “a god” or “divine” or “godlike” does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a certain quality about the Word, or Logos, but it does not identify him as one and the same as God himself.

In the Greek text there are many cases of a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb, such as in Mr 6:49; 11:32; Joh 4:19; 6:70; 8:44; 9:17; 10:1, 13, 33; 12:6. In these places translators insert the indefinite article “a” before the predicate noun in order to bring out the quality or characteristic of the subject. Since the indefinite article is inserted before the predicate noun in such texts, with equal justification the indefinite article “a” is inserted before the anarthrous ???? in the predicate of John 1:1 to make it read “a god.” The Sacred Scriptures confirm the correctness of this rendering.

In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,” published in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 92, Philadelphia, 1973, p. 85, Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in Joh 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos. There is no basis for regarding the predicate theos as definite.” On p. 87 of his article, Harner concluded: “In John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun cannot be regarded as definite.”

I can also present a list of instances in the gospels of Mark and John where various translators have rendered singular anarthrous predicate nouns occurring before the verb with an indefinite article to denote the indefinite and qualitative status of the subject nouns. Shall I present those as well?

Yes, when I learned the truth of that scripture and had taken in knowledge, not limiting myself to tradition, pride or just plain stubborness, because 'I' wanted the truth, it all made so much sense. And the Bible is not a mystery.

Now, how you accept it's message with all the proof given, is truly up to you. The world will not be destroyed by fire, ungodly men will be destroyed as the bible teach, majority of people will live on the earth as the Bible teach, some will go to heaven. If everyone is going to heaven, what need would there be for a resurrection? People are not tormented is a firery hell forever because the Bible does not teach that. How does that makes sense when the Bible says cleary in Romans 6:7 and 23, For he who has died has been acquitted from [his] sin.

'Acquitted' So why go to a hell and be tortured by fire for ever and ever? That makes no sense especially when the Bible tells us about the condtion of the dead at Ecc 9:5 , “The living are conscious that they will die; but as for the dead, they are conscious of nothing at all.”

So what's the use of burning their bodies for ever and ever?

Pslams 146: “His spirit goes out, he goes back to his ground; in that day his thoughts [“thoughts,” KJ, 145:4 in Dy; “all his thinking,” NE; “plans,” RS, NAB] do perish.”

Gen. 3:19: “In the sweat of your face you will eat bread until you return to the ground, for out of it you were taken. For dust you are and to dust you will return.”

I could go on and on


beatenandscarred 4 years ago

Abbasangels: Jesus and God are not the same, Jesus is Gods son:"one and only Son, who came from the Father" quoted right from your link.


maricarbo profile image

maricarbo 2 years ago Author

So what would you say about God's other special prophets, beings who came to this Earth to help humanity? Are they not sons of GOD, too? The sweet Krishna, Mohammed, Buddha, others, etc? I don't want to start a WAR here, but the reality of the matter is that GOD sent other beings here to help us evolve into better people, did he not? They were sent as a way as a means of connecting people...but a lot of people in the Middle East do not want to connect to others with different ideas of GOD. It seems we are very confused.

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