Did prehistoric societies breed new races of humans?

1. 77

   Oztinatoposted 9 years ago

   Did prehistoric societies breed new races of humans?
   
   Neanderthal DNA is found in modern races. Were primitive societies deliberately using animal husbandry techniques to breed new races such as Homo? How else can we explain such a profusion of "late" human species. Breeds of horses are known to develop greater weaknesses to living in the wild. Isn't this the case with Homo Sapiens?

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2. 81

   tamarawilhiteposted 9 years ago

   They were not intentionally using eugenics in their societies.
   The bigger impact was the broad distribution of people, such that a small inbred group would consider breeding with Neandertals and the Denisova hominin.
   That's likely why we all (outside of Africa) have some Neandertal DNA. The small group that left Africa encountered Neandertals in the Middle East and tolerated interbreeding because the alternative was more inbreeding.
   The distribution and later isolate of small groups is likely what caused racial diversification.

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3. 77

   lawrence01posted 9 years ago

   This is an interesting question. Some here have commented about us being mixed with Neanderthal DNA but I was reading recently that people from Central Asia have none at all, yet Western Europeans have up to 4% Neanderthal DNA!
   More recently I was reading that preliminary tests done on the elongated skulls found in Peru in the early 20th century have revealed gene sequences not found anywhere on the supposed human evolutionary tree! I've thought of doing a hub linking this to Genesis 6 and the nephilim but not really ready for the controversy it would cause!
   I personally do see Genesis 6 and the 'sons of God' as possibly having a link here.
   That's my thoughts
   Lawrence

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   1. 77

      Oztinatoposted 9 years agoin reply to this

      Thanks for that. I will certainly do some reading up on those south american results.

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