Here is an old grammatical controversy.. Is the word none singular or plural?
Does it denote "no one" or is ii a part of many as in none have it better"
Interesting question but the word can only be singular, as none (lack of) can by obvious definition never be plural.
No one has to be looked at as two separate words but the principle is essentially the same in that if there is no one, there can never be two or more.
"None have it better?" The phrase itself is grammatically unacceptable...
Generally singular. "None is." However, I believe that the noun after the preposition such as "of" will dicate a plural verb if a plural noun follows the preposition. Example: None of the children are going. None of the teachers are present.
At least, that's what I'm thinking, but I should research that a bit more to make sure that what I'm saying is correct.
Yes Gordon Hamilton you are correct but "none" can also mean "any" so would you say any is plural or singular? For example I haven't any, or is there any more. There is none (indicating singular present tense) or there is none left (indicating plural past tense).
Victoria Lynn, you are correct it can be used both ways
None is neither singular or plural because it is not a verb or a noun. None denotes a quantity when means that it is an adjective or an adverb which does not have to be singular or plural to be grammatically correct.
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