How could the Constitution be for individual rights when blacks were deemed to be 3/5 of a person?
AND THEY WERE ENSLAVED!
(Blacks 3/5 of a person (Article 1, Section 2, Paragraph 3. Constitution 1787)
Unfortunately during that era blacks were for the most part considered to be "property" and not human beings.
When the Declaration of Independence was drawn up in 1776;
"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that (all men) are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness"
The above statement was not intended to apply to slaves and Native Americans.
It wasn't until August 18, 1920, the congress ratified the 19th amendment providing guarantees all American women the right to vote. Therefore not even white women were seen as equals.
The Supreme Court didn't legalize interracial marriage until 1967.
Historically you look back and wonder how so many injustices could have be allowed or perpetrated by government of the people for the people.
As they say, hindsight is 20/20. History has a shocking tendency towards both racism and misogyny.
Things have most certainly gotten better, but we here in the U.S. still have our problems. Like the remainder of the 50 states continuing to not legalizing gay marriage, for example.
by My Esoteric2 years ago
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by GA Anderson3 years ago
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by Kitk335 years ago
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by Kathryn L Hill2 years ago
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by preacherdon6 years ago
What's your take on why it is OK for a woman to abort a child because it is her body and she can do with it as she likes, but it is not ok to not wear a seat belt for the same reason? I think it is because insurance...
by Useless itch2 years ago
At what point is a persons individual rights being infringed upon?When does our freedom become acceptable to be taken from us? I.e. Jails, mental health institutions and even death (murder is murder)!
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