A woman that menstruates without getting pregnant, and a woman that gets pregnant which will reach menopause first?
Replying to the OP, as a young woman I watched my friend's mother have 13 children. She said something to me once about the menopause. She couldn't understand why she flew threw it with no problems. Maybe it was because she has 13 children?
I had six. I flew through the menopause too.
There's maybe something in it.
Then again, Betty died when she was only 70.
It depends on what her body has gone through over the course of her life.
I think it depends on the number of egg they have and how its ovulated. In situation where the egg is equal, a woman that ovulates without pregnancy should be the first to reach menopause. If we remember and consider the cyclic events of the hormones LH and FSH.
Again, it depends on the woman's body. The pressure and stress a woman endures over the course of her life, will bring menopause at different times. It isn't strictly related to how they ovulate.
I think also the ethnicity plays a role. Women of Latin America are starting their menses earlier on average than Nordic women. Thus they were traditionally entering marriage in younger age than North European women, if I recall correctly.
i find it odd that men are answering this...
it's like me(female0 describing what prostrate problems are
Well nobody stopped a woman from making contribution. Men should have the knowledge especially those in the medical field. Why won't women know about men reproductive system while we have women doctor?
I think the question is assuming the women are otherwise identical--like alternative universe versions where pregnancy was the only difference.
Assuming that to be the case perhaps the well-informed gentlemen would like to give the answer?
the question assumes a situation were pregnancy is the only difference.
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