jump to last post 1-3 of 3 discussions (4 posts)

Why are policital ads not held to the same standards as other ads?

  1. Novel Treasure profile image89
    Novel Treasureposted 5 years ago

    Why are policital ads not held to the same standards as other ads?

    Just wondering why candidates and politicians can't be sued for false advertising. Most of the commericals or slander campaigns against each other have been proven false by private fact check institutions. So my question is, can we as the public sue them for false advertising.

  2. Josak profile image61
    Josakposted 5 years ago

    Because the Us has very very very soft false advertising regulations. The ad has to use knowingly false information to convince a consumer to purchase a product or service (thus political ads do not apply as a vote is not a purchase) even if a company does knowingly lie an is found guilty they cannot be fined only be ordered to stop the ad if they refuse then they can receive a slap on the wrist fine.

  3. rfmoran profile image88
    rfmoranposted 5 years ago

    The main reason, actually THE reason is the First Amendment. Govt is loathe to control political speech in any way, so politicians are free to lie their heads off. The only corrective is opposition advertising to straighten out the facts. A good friend of mine was running to succeed himself as Suffolk County NY Executive. The weekend before the election the airwaves were blasted with naked lies telling people my friend had raised taxes, which he hadn't. He lost the election. As Mark Twain once said: “A lie can travel halfway around the world while the truth is putting on its shoes.”

    1. Attikos profile image79
      Attikosposted 5 years agoin reply to this

      Another reason is that the standards, or at least those incorporated in regulation, are written by the politicians who run the ads. They exempt themselves from most of the burdens they place on others, actually.