For example, Hammurabi's code outlaws murder, theft and rape in 1790 BCE, then the Hitte Empire outlaws murder and assault, set a punishment for rape in 1680BCE, the Assura Code does the same in 1075BCE, THEN Leviticus (the moral code in the OT) is written in it's present form around 538-332 BCE...the NT even later than this in AD 150. So, if morals only come from the Christian God, how do you account for the morals of these peoples pre Christianity? (NO "God was there before Christianity" cop outs please - makes you look bad, and I don't want that)
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Feenix - sorry, this wasn't directed @ every1, it was a response 2 the question to prove morals without God/Bible.
I agree with yr last statement, however have bn told that without God/Bible, I must b immoral as I'm an atheist. Not all, only a few.
Jacqui, I apologize for misunderstanding your question.
However, I must say, Even though I am a Christian or a believer in God, I know that I am "morally inferior" to a great many atheists and agnostics.
Jac: How can "believers" reply to this question for we believe "before God" there was "void?" "Looking bad?" Oh, well! "Who would I rather please, "man" or God?" (Gal 1:10)
Norine - please make your own answer - we can discuss further.
Feenix - no apology necessary. I don't think that any 1 faith (or lack of) has more superior morals than another. I just find it absurd that people can assert that without God = no morals