Have the guiding principles of major religions in the world been hijacked or they got it all wrong?
Scriptures of some of the major religions in the world have all sorts of opinions on the sexual act. They even outrightly condemn 'Homosexuality' but strangely have no opinion on 'Paedophilia'. To my understanding Paedophilia must have existed in the society for centuries whereas homosexuality would still be a fairly newer concept. If so, then why is it that it fails to find a mention?
More and more paedophile cases have started echoing right from the citadels of religion. Would it then be wrong, to say there's a possible breach or perhaps moral-bankruptcy right at the heart of the religion?
If you look to religion for answers, you'll get conflicting ones. Perhaps it is better to determine if there is a victim.
If one person has stolen property from another, that's theft. If one person kills another, that can be murder, unless it's in self defense. If an adult (defined when most reasonable adults think he or she should know better) rapes a child, molests a child etc., that is a violation of that child's liberty. Straight forward. If two grown men love each other, consent to mutual sex, who is the victim? It may not fit your definition of logical relationships or necessarily be moral, but by what right can they be denied their relationship?
Religion was perhaps mankind's original way to explain the universe, but it lacked and grounding in reality -- in reason. It was and is based upon faith or more accurately, blind belief. Hence, you can say today, hundreds, if not thousands of years later, humankind should be able to outgrow it.
Ashutosh, you start off with a great question, then you seem to go off on a tangent that really doesn't explain your question. So I'm going to give my opinion in a two-part answer.
1. Anytime someone establishes a belief system, be they Buddha, Jesus, Mohammed, etc. it only remains true to the established belief for one or two generations. By the third generation, like overripe fruit, it is starting to change into something else. Give it 10 generations, and it has changed to fit the society that keeps it alive. That's not just my opinion, but a sociological fact.
2. When you look at the concept of homosexuality and pedophilia and religion going back to the ancient Greeks, or farther, you will see that their religion allowed both. The Greeks and Romans had brothels of both sexes, and a man could seek out a little boy for his pleasure, according to his tastes. The Abrahamic religions didn't condone homosexuality or contraceptive measures because they were trying to establish populations. However, any society that allows child marriages has to be condoning pedophilia, and they allowed child marriages. So what does it matter whether the 12-year-old is married to her abuser or not? (Remember in old India, marriages and sex with 6 and 8 year old brides was legal?) It is our modern society today that has come to see the harm in sexual actions against youngsters and set legal marriage age limits. It also makes sexually exploiting children illegal.
In this instance, I think the "moral breach" as you put it has lasted for centuries, maybe forever. It appears to me that modern society is just now recognizing the harm it does both physically and emotionally to the young, and society is finally trying to do something about it.
@Miz, the question was essentially on the selective highlighting of one issue and silence on the other. Religion driven practises were never sane so as to evn speak off. If it wasn't for the society, religion wud have continued to enforce them.
The only thing I see religion enforcing is men's rights, not women's or children's.
Absoloutely true...patriarchy is born out of religion.
The guiding principles of this administration do not exist. As per your question regarding pedophilia? During the OT era there was no such thing--a slave was a slave, a child a child and as for sexual molestation of a minor? Didn't exist...children and women didn't have rights...your question needs to be researched and understood historically. Women didn't gain rights in many countries until the mid 20th century...do some homework...I think you'll find this to be the case.
So what you're implying is, these emerged in modern societies. If so then, why is homosexuality condemned in the holy books?
And would you mind explaining what 'women rights' have to do with paedophila or homosexuality??
Ash...Is your question about homosexuality or pedophilia? The two things are NOT the same. I am just trying to get some clarification. Seems like an intetesting topic. Perhaps I can contribute something. Just not sure what you really want to know.
Paedophilia primarily especially the cases coming out of religiois institutions. Homosexuality has being referenced to draw a comparison on how religions have not drawn a line when it comes to paedophilia.
Hope that clarifies it.
Okay, thanks. I don't have anything on pedophilia, except to say that homosexuals are not pedophiles. Sick men, who may also be heterosexual, are pedophiles. Normal Gays do not look to abuse children.
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