Do you realize that John 3:16 is a warning as well as a promise?
Most people accentuate the promise in John 3:16 "whoever believes in Him will...have everlasting life." But very few people recognize the warning..."For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son that whoever believes in Him WILL NOT PERISH, but will have everlasting life."
The warning is this: the only way to everlasting life is by believing in the Son. If you don't believe in Who He is, you will perish!
Its just another appeal to emotion, just like pascals wager, and it falls equally short of the mark.
saying that everyone who doesn't believe what you believe is doomed to die (when everyone who has ever lived has died) is an appeal to emotion, just like Pascal's wager (which has been thoroughly debunked)
thoroughly debunked multitudes of times by biblical scholars, historians and people who actually work in the field, yes.
how so what? How has Pascal's wager been debunked? Look it up.
I am asking you. I want to understand your thinking on the matter.
I wrote a hub on it. 300 characters is not enough to even begin to describe it. If you're interested in my thoughts on the matter, I'm sure you can find my hub on it.
I have read your hub. How does this verse compare?
it's an appeal to emotion just like the wager. If you don't believe this you'll die - nevermind the fact that every person that has ever lived has died. It's inevitable. The hope of an unproven afterlife just fosters a desire to believe in more.
It speaks of a different death don't you think? It is comparing two opposites. Everlasting life vs perishing. John assumes his audience believes in God, he is asserting what he trusts to be factual. It isn't an argument. How is it similar?
Perish. Is it or is it not a synonym for death?
It is, but it must be read contextually correct? What does the Greek say?
Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ Θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν Υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς Αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ἀλλ᾽ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.
all the ones trusting in him would not perish, but have eternal life.
I am most interested in perish. The word used. What is it?
Perish= After looking at many of the Greek words, I came to the conclusion that meaning in John 3:16, has to be the Greek word APOLLUMI. This word is used in Matt 5:29-30 and these verses there is some Hyperoble being used.
Yes, I know this. I have a Greek New Testament and it is clearly spelled out.
I think that it is just as important to acknowledge this warning as it is to realize the immensity of the promise. Many people seem to miss that point in the verse. I am not really sure if you are looking for more than a yes or no answer but yes I realize that it is a warning.
Without Christ and His Blood applied to us and our entire lives/nature daily, then we do great injustice to ourselves. Jesus paid it all; there is NOTHING we can do to make up because He bore our guilt and separation upon the Cross. We ACCEPT Jesus TO recieve His Life. Believing is knowing, loving, and DOING His Will. "All you gotta do is believe.." is total horse-crap: WHAT do u believe? SHOW it by living......Jesus did it.
I don't see a warning at all, because I know that every knee will bow and tongue confess that Christ is Lord.
Well then what does the verse mean? Why does it use apollumi?
It depends on our works. Some works will be rewarded while others will be destroyed. The fire shall test and consume the bad works, yet those in the fire shall still be saved by it.
This is referencing submission and recognition of His authority as rightful King during His Millennial reign on earth before the Judgement (the second resurrection), which He did not receive before while on earth.
The separating of wheat from the chaff, sheep from the goats and walking along the narrow path versus the wide path that leads to destruction...
The question is, who are the sheep and who are the goats? I believe that they are all Jews, the Christ believing Jew and the Christ hating Jew. And Christ seperated them just before the sieg of Jerusalem. But that's my belief.
But the scriptures say "all nations" (Matthew 25:32) how could that reference only the Jews then?
I think it is important to remember that He was speaking to His diciples when He said this. Just before the sieg of Jerusalem started, they were celebtrating the feast of tabernacle, and all the jews gathered from all nations in Jerusalem.
The Greek word for nation here is ethnos (taken from Strong's concordance), and it means foreign (non-Jewish) race - gentile, heathen, etc.
Yet the Jews lived in these foriegn nations did they not?
I'm very confused... if this already happened, at what point has Christ already come "in His glory with all the angels with Him?" This to me is referencing the second coming of Christ, a future event.
This event has already happened when He put His enemies under His feet. This event happened AD70. He did not come back physically, He came back spiritually through the hearts and minds of all mankind. Besides Rev 15:4 contradicts hell.
1 Cor 15:25-26 indicates that the enemy death will be put under His feet, and that has not yet happened. I don't wish to assume anything so I will ask, you don't believe Christ will return again, is that correct?
How can He return again, when He is already with us? Read John 21:15 to the end. He was hinting to Peter that John will still be alive when He returns. Matt 24 mentions that during the generation of that time will be His second return as well.
"All the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven..." Where in the history books is this amazing event written?
I think the "sheep" and the "goat" define two categories of people
The rich and poor sort of speak. Jesus liked to help the poor, so see where I am going with this
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