If John wrote after AD 90, why did he not mention the destruction of the temple in AD 70?
If John wrote after AD 90 as many Bible commentators claim, why did he never mention the fulfilment of Jesus’ prophecy about the destruction of the temple, Jerusalem, and the dispersion of the Jews in AD 70?
Why do we think that John would have mentioned Jerusalem's destruction? I mean, where in the book of Revelation would he have , or should have mentioned it?
I have accepted an early date for Revelation, but the fact that it is not mentioned seems like a weak argument to me.
I didn’t mention The Book of Revelation in my question. My point is that all John’s writings are after AD 90 according to most commentators. If so why did he not mention the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem in AD 70.
Bishop J L Hayes
Thank you for your answer.
I have read your Hub 'When Was the Book of Revelation Written?, and the Hub entitled ‘All these Things’. Both are excellent and I learned from them.
I agree John could not have referred to the destruction in AD 70 in the Book of Revelation, primarily because he had to record specifically what he saw in the Vision. However, most Bible commentators claim the post AD 90 date for John’s Gospel and Epistles. Yet, John never mentioned the amazing fulfilment of Christ’s prophecy, the most catastrophic event in the history of Old Covenant Israel.
I would value your opinion on my Hub 'The Book of Revelation was Written Before AD 70!'
Nowhere on your page did you mention Moses parting the sea. Why? Could it be because it was not relevant? There were millions of things John of Patmos did not mention in Revelation. That lack does nothing to date his writings.
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