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Why is “Jesus wept” made the shortest verse of the bible and why did Jesus weep

  1. davidkaluge profile image38
    davidkalugeposted 7 years ago

    Why is “Jesus wept” made the shortest verse of the bible and why did Jesus weep because of...


  2. L R Goodman profile image78
    L R Goodmanposted 7 years ago

    If I remember from Bible School... the verses (as in the numbering) were added later by someone who was just trying to organize it so that people could find things faster (ie. John 5:4 etc)

    And I think Jesus was weeping because Mary (sister of Lazarus) did not have faith, not that Lazarus had died.

  3. davidkaluge profile image38
    davidkalugeposted 7 years ago

    John 11: 35 “Jesus Wept.” It could have read Jesus wept and said… but it stopped at the two words Jesus wept. I tried to answer the question in my book, “it is time we truly know why Jesus wept.” Then I realized that it is a mystery because it is the key to many things that may never be known and even if it is known many may never believe the secret in that two words that are why I ask to see if they are those that have received the hidden mystery in the two words, “Jesus wept.”  If someone arranged it then it is the same thing for every thing is for a reason.

  4. profile image0
    ShadowKing!posted 7 years ago

    The verse in Greek actually reads "i?sous o edakrusen" and literally translates into "the christ shed tears" or as "the anointed shed tears." Translators shortened "shed tears" to "wept" because the former conveys a sense of "silent mourning" while the latter conveys "loud emotional wailing". They thought that portraying God as "silently crying" gave off an air of emotional detachment. Whereas "weeping" lends to more "dramatic show".

    It's the shortest verse because, well, umm, it contains only 4 words in literally Greek linguistics; 3 words in English "dynamic equivalent" translation; and 2 words in shorten English "DE" translation. The original Greek manuscripts don't contain chapter and verse distinctions nor capitalization of "Lord," "God," "Jesus," or "Lazarus". These are all English translating embellishments to make the text keenly readable. 

    Commentators tend to "play up" this scene as though Jesus was showing the quintessence of human emotions. "Crying over the loss of human life." While this is all fine and dandy, you cannot find other verses of Jesus "crying over dead humans". The explanation commentators give seems a bit scripted to such and such doctrine. And no, Jesus doesn't say anything immediately afterward. Others do.

    A likelihood of why Jesus "cried" could be that Jesus and Lazarus were GOOD friends. Verse 36 says, "Behold how He loved him." The Scriptures specifically tell us Christ loved Lazarus (not a homosexual love as some like to play around on). But this is "brotherly love". The Scriptures are probably silent on their close friendship as to not later lead men into conjecturing false interpretations and far-fetched presumptions.
    So Jesus wept over Lazarus because He lost a good friend.

  5. Dave Mathews profile image60
    Dave Mathewsposted 7 years ago

    It is how the verses were numbered.  Jesus wept because, both Mary and Martha, didn't understand that Jesus waited for Lazarus to be dead, so that he could exercise God's power over life and death and prove the possibility of the resurrection, and didn't have faith enough in God to do this.

  6. Apostle Jack profile image60
    Apostle Jackposted 7 years ago

    It is now as it was then...it is time to cry.