Where did the term man and woman first came from ?

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  1. Sky9106 profile image69
    Sky9106posted 7 years ago

    Where did the term man and woman first came from ?

    This is a great thought , which came to my head, and I said that I am not going to look it up on Google before I ask this forum. Never even thought about it before, but I read it in the Bible.

  2. TIMETRAVELER2 profile image98
    TIMETRAVELER2posted 7 years ago

    The funny answer to this is that the word woman comes from "woe to man"...don't know if that's true, but many men would think so!!

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this

      Time T . In case you are not aware this is the stop where all earthly questions must be answered. Man, when he has finally understood himself , there can be no" Woe" caused by any other of God's  creation. We must accept our roles.

  3. Attikos profile image74
    Attikosposted 7 years ago

    The word "man" is Gothic. You find a variant of it in all Germanic languages, including English. It originally referred to any human being, either male or female. It still does today when used in the general sense, e.g. "mankind." Another old English word for a male was "weapman," or a person with a weapon. Use your imagination.

    The specific female counterpart to wer was "wif." The term for all female persons was "wifman." That is the origin of the word "woman."

    The Bible is a collection of documents originally written in Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek, and perhaps other languages. Its codex did not form until the fourth century A.D. at which time it was copied in Byzantine Greek, then in Latin. The first partial English translation of which we know is that of the Venerable Bede, late in the seventh century. That is where these words first appear. Should you wish to look into them before that, you will have to read the other tongues of earlier times.

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this

      Quite profound, Thanks.

  4. H P Roychoudhury profile image46
    H P Roychoudhuryposted 7 years ago

    I think in the Universe if everything is known there would not be any charm. The uncertainty in any matter raises our curiosity and we like to move on. Where the term man and woman first came from did- is the vital question prevailing in the Globe since the known birth of the Earth. There are two kinds of answers so far known to us. One is the power of Almighty who created man and woman in the Earth and the other is the scientific, the birth of life is due to a natural accident which never ever could have been created to form the protoplasm.

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this

      Wonderful HPR Wonderful ! I think evolution is quite the legitimate child of creation.

  5. Faceless39 profile image94
    Faceless39posted 7 years ago

    http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?all … hmode=none

    man (n.)
    O.E. man, mann "human being, person," from P.Gmc. *manwaz (cf. O.S., O.H.G. man, Ger. Mann, O.N. maðr, Goth. manna "man"), from PIE root *man- (cf. Skt. manuh, Avestan manu-, O.C.S. mozi, Rus. muzh "man, male"). Sometimes connected to root *men- "to think" (see mind), which would make the ground sense of man "one who has intelligence," but not all linguists accept this. Liberman, for instance, writes, "Most probably man 'human being' is a secularized divine name" from Mannus, "believed to be the progenitor of the human race."

    http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?all … hmode=none

    late O.E. wimman (pl. wimmen), lit. "woman-man," alteration of wifman (pl. wifmen), a compound of wif "woman" (see wife) + man "human being" (in O.E. used in ref. to both sexes; see man). Cf. Du. vrouwmens "wife," lit. "woman-man." The formation is peculiar to English and Dutch. Replaced older O.E. wif, quean as the word for "female human being." The pronunciation of the singular altered in M.E. by the rounding influence of -w-; the plural retains the original vowel. Meaning "wife," now largely restricted to U.S. dial. use, is attested from mid-15c. Women's liberation is attested from 1966; women's rights is from 1840, with an isolated example in 1630s.

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this


  6. HubCrafter profile image66
    HubCrafterposted 7 years ago

    in Genesis 1:26 the Bible says, "Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness....

    So God named man.

    Genesis 2:22 (God creates woman from the man, Adam.)

    Genesis 2:23
    And Adam said:
    "This is now bone of my bones
    And flesh of my flesh:
    She shall be called Woman,
    because she was taken out of Man."

    So Adam named Woman.

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this

      I am 100% with the bible and quite open to all translations .

  7. ib radmasters profile image61
    ib radmastersposted 7 years ago

    I don't know the purpose of the question?
    Then add mankind, and ask how to apply it to man and woman.
    Then try All Men Are Created Equal and apply it to man and woman.
    These derivation are imprecise and don't translate directly.

    My thought is that at the time that man and woman were created was also a time when Males ran the world, and Females were treated like Chattel with the exception of a few queens, princesses but they were exceptions rather than the rule.

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this

      The question as so many seems to stop where the bible places them , and I am a believer that won't allow my belief to stop. Thanks.

  8. hillymillydee profile image62
    hillymillydeeposted 7 years ago

    The term man means male man, the term woman means female man.

    The first language that was used by the first man and woman was  one kind of hebrew language that was where that terms came from, it was transliterated to many languages and especially to english and so we say it "man and woman."

    The first man called his wife a woman because from his ribs the woman was taken Gen. 2:22

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this

      I think the Bible puts it the best , so thanks.

  9. kess profile image60
    kessposted 5 years ago

    Need not say man represent male/masculinity and woman represent female/femininity, but it is relevant to the rest of the story.

    The two is a representation of the duality of our earthly existence.

    Maleness is a representation of singularity, wholeness, perfection, rest.without any need.
    This is the totality of existence and referred to as Heaven or the God head and the father figure.

    The female exist as separate from, antagonistic against, derivative of maleness.

    This is represented as earth and all thing contained therein.
    From this we have  the expression Mother earth.

    The Highest expression of femaleness is Wife and mother.
    This she attain in being in union with and subjected to maleness in the form of her husband.

    This is why Adam's Wife was the one who was came from himself and any other female found in the garden.

    There was another in the garden who embodied the feminine spirit, but is wholly useless to Adam and her goal was to totally dominate the male, which would circumvent the purpose for the embodiment of Maleness as man.

    Adam rejected her as his wife.

    I hope you can see the picture of the origin of  the genders and how they relate to us a human.

    I can say much more in many different ways, but since the understanding mind can pick sense out of nonsense, i believe I have written enough.

    1. Sky9106 profile image69
      Sky9106posted 5 years agoin reply to this

      You sure have and have managed to place a broad smile across my face . Now in case you need to know the purpose of that smile, here goes . There is a word in here which I know will place you in a position of having to explain. .
      I would read on , .

    2. kess profile image60
      kessposted 5 years agoin reply to this

      Well shoot  I am happy to explain.


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