Jesus said:"My God, My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me How can he be god in the f

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  1. vveasey profile image83
    vveaseyposted 5 years ago

    Jesus said:"My God, My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me
    How can he be god in the flesh?"

    This is what Jesus said while on the cross
    Jesus said: "My God, My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me"?
    Matt. 27: 46 Mark 15:34

  2. Synclesian profile image83
    Synclesianposted 5 years ago

    This is a question that involves the mystery of the nature of God. Jesus is the Son of God which means He is divine. He has always had a relationship with God the Father. Them He became a man in the flesh. As a man, He was subjected to all the trials and temptations of a man in the flesh, yet He had no sin in His being. On the cross, He became an offering for sin. He  even became Sin on the cross. This is a spiritual event that transpired while He was on the cross. "He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." (2 Cor 5:21). "For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh" (Romans 8:3).  When Jesus became Sin, God the Father had to separate Himself from Jesus the man. Jesus is both God and man, but on the cross it seems the Father separated Himself from the human Jesus who became sin. Thus Jesus, as a man, cried out "why have you forsaken me?".  We are the ones who should be forsaken by God because of our sin. Jesus, due to His great love, took the suffering on Himself to be separated from the Father. This separation seems to be a unique and special event that was needed for our salvation. Jesus was forsaken by the Father for a brief  time, so that we all could be joined to God for eternity.

    1. profile image56
      Norine Williamsposted 4 years agoin reply to this

      " "SEEMS" the Father separated Himself from the human Jesus who became sin."  This makes WORD a LIE!  If "He will never leave us," (Deut 31:7)  why would He leave "His Son" (ONE OF HIS GLORY'S) or SELF (Jn 10:30)?

  3. celafoe profile image71
    celafoeposted 5 years ago

    its just further proof He is THE SON OF GOD and that the trinity doctrine is a doctrine of man and is not of God.

    1. profile image56
      Norine Williamsposted 4 years agoin reply to this


  4. Oztinato profile image76
    Oztinatoposted 5 years ago

    Just after that He asked God to accept His soul.
    There are many mysteries about JC and his few words on the cross.
    It also proves the biblical record was totally honest about the events including this and the actual resurrection.
    My theory: JC acted as a symbolic sacrifice  (as one of the many other things he did). This relates to the sacrificial goat which was daubed with the cruciform Tau symbol before being sacrificed. This cross symbol (the Tau) was used on all contracts as a seal. To fufil the "nailing of sin to the cross" JC made a symbolic act of sin at the very moment he expired, in full control of all the circumstances. Hence his symbolic statement re being forsaken. He then expired immediately to complete the sacrifice. It was an elaborate ceremonial theatre event followed by His resurrection. All these events were faithfully recorded even though not fully understood by contemporaries. It is proof of the veracity of the new testament and the extraordinary power of JC.

  5. searchinsany profile image69
    searchinsanyposted 5 years ago

    On numerous occasions, I have read articles and listened to sermons proclaiming Jesus was smitten of God. After investigation, I was shocked to discover the opposite was true!

    In my opinion, The Lord Jesus Christ was not 'smitten of God', neither was He 'made sin' nor 'forsaken of God'. My Hub 'Was Jesus Smitten of God' explains my view in detail. … ten-of-God

  6. royblizzard profile image82
    royblizzardposted 5 years ago

    Jesus was using a typical Rabbinical Jewish method of teaching called REMEZ or hinting. This is where the teacher quotes a part or parts of a passage and the listeners are to fill in the blanks. Jesus here quotes from the beginning of Psalms 22, "My God, My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me" and then at the time He breaths his last says "He/God has done this", which is the last words of Psalms 22. The Jews are then to fill in the blanks of the missing verses which they would have known by heart. Jesus was teaching unto the last to those who would listen of the righteousness of God.

    1. searchinsany profile image69
      searchinsanyposted 5 years agoin reply to this

      Psa 22:24  For he hath not despised nor abhorred the affliction of the afflicted; neither hath he hid his face from him; but when he cried unto him, he heard.

    2. Ericdierker profile image60
      Ericdierkerposted 4 years agoin reply to this

      Very interesting. Makes sense.

    3. profile image56
      Norine Williamsposted 4 years agoin reply to this

      "Jews" are not the ONLY ones that can "fill in the blanks" for Holy Spirit is NOW avail 2 ALL (Gal 3:28) & has "no respect of persons" (Acts10:34;Rm 2:11). Holy Spirit NOW speaks "to those who would (will) listen" but II Cor 4:3 bcuz Matt 13:10-1

  7. profile image56
    Norine Williamsposted 4 years ago

    "My God, My God," have you all come so far from TRUTH?  First of all, Jesus did not say God forsook Him, He "ASKED" "My God, My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me?" 

    Do you not know that Jesus Christ was GOD and man "simultaneously" when He spoke those Words (Jeremiahs 23:24)? Being "man" or in the "flesh," do you not know that the "pain and suffering" (flesh) Jesus Christ suffered on the Cross is reason why He spoke those Words (Galatians 4:4)?  Although HE WAS GOD, He was in the "flesh" (felt pain and suffered) as well!  God NEVER "forsook" Jesus else He would have forsaken "Himself" (John 10:30)!  The flesh (man) portion of GOD (due to the flesh's pain and suffering) spoke those Words on the Cross!

    Do you not know that GOD is "ONE SPIRIT" (Ephesians 4:4-6) who changed from "GLORY to GLORY" throughout Scripture as He (we) does (do) NOW (II Corinthians 3:18)?  Do you not know that "ONE SPIRIT" (beyond "mere man's" imagination) is in ALL places "simultaneously" in ANY form or fashion He desires (GLORIES; Jeremiah 23:24)?

    Again, "I say," Satan has used the "Religion" device (Tool) to "twist" our thinking to loose the majority of our souls and until we learn to "Worship in "Spirit" AND "in Truth" (John 4:24), we will never "see" the miraculous Works of God, Who changes from "GLORY to GLORY!"     

    Until ALL stop look at the Father (Glory) and Son (Glory) instead of father and son (which one can ONLY "see" when "Worship in Spirit and in Truth") they will NEVER understand the MYSTERY of GOD as Father and Son and not 3 persons (flesh) or "The Trinity" which is a man-made LIE! (Thanks Nicaea Council! SATAN!)

    1. profile image56
      Norine Williamsposted 4 years agoin reply to this

      Last paragraph: Stop looking at Scripture as father and son and start looking as Father (Glory) & Son (Glory) in the SPIRIT (ONE SPIRIT) to "see" GOD as He really is: Who changes from GLORY TO GLORY as we do (II Cor 3:18)!

      How? I Tim 3:16!


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